Yahoo Answers is shutting down on May 4th, 2021 (Eastern Time) and the Yahoo Answers website is now in read-only mode. There will be no changes to other Yahoo properties or services, or your Yahoo account. You can find more information about the Yahoo Answers shutdown and how to download your data on this help page.

Isn't atheism as irrational as theism?

Okay, so... before anyone goes burning me at the stake, let me explain:

If we take a position of absolute knowledge, we presuppose that something does or does not exist. To claim that God exists without a basis of evidence is certainly irrational; but shouldn't we accept that our own experiences are valid for ourselves (even if not valid for others)?

To claim that God does not exist is also a claim--it's not merely, as many say here, a rejection of the claim that God exists, because in the absence of evidence to support or refute the claim the correct action would be to suspend judgment: to be agnostic, rather than solidly for or against the position. Because regardless, a lack of evidence is not evidence of a lack--this is in virtually every accepted textbook on the subject of Critical Thinking that I can find at the university and public library systems. So if this is true from a philosophical point of view, wouldn't that make the militant form of atheism equal in irrationality to the fundamentalist Christian counterparts?

Let me explain things one step further: in science if we look for something that there is not evidence to support, the question is not merely dropped: it can be revisited later, when there is a greater level of technology, and so a lack of data to refute the existence of something merely accepts the lack of data, and does not close the book on any phenomenon.

So while there may be a general acceptance of a lacking phenomenon itself, this is in fact an irrational point of view in the absence of evidence to refute the existence of such a phenomenon. It is only a lack of evidence. So while personal experiences and observations may observe something, a lack of ability to measure it or repeat it merely opens a vacuum of evidence; it doesn't necessarily prove that something does not exist.

The only thing that could offer the proof of a lack of existence is the presence of something which is mutually exclusive to the phenomenon which is desired. Logically, one cannot prove the lack of something; one can only prove the presence of something which prevents it from happening.

What prevents God from happening in such a case? The existence of everything is in fact the only evidence to support that God exists: as Creator, the idea of God is inextricably linked to Creation, and cannot merely be defeated by absence of proof--literally, everything would be proof, to a mind that accepts ID as a source. But why can't it be that the Big Bang was a part of His design?

Why must we accept the irrationality of atheism as anything other than equal to the irrationality of Christianity?

Feel free to explain any fallacies in my logic on this point as you answer. 10 pts. goes to the person who answers clearly, honestly, and with as little bias as possible.

Update:

Kas: For your bottle of medicine is a definite thing that can be measured and proved; it does not, by definition, defy proof. The questions raised in my argumentation still stand.

Update 2:

I'm noticing a lot of people defining atheism as agnostic. The truth is, it would simply be agnosticism if it was the "I don't know" answer, and not atheism at all. Atheism BY DEFINITION must preclude the idea that any deity exists--it literally means "no god" in Greek. It is therefore not a question, but a firm position, regardless of the cleverness that someone has done in trying to redefine it into a context of agnosticism.

To say that one believes one thing or another is the issue. Atheists here have written many times that it's irrational to believe in a deity, so what makes it rational to accept the defining position of atheism as having no deity? The inverse of a claim is still a claim. Rejecting the existence of god outright is by definition atheism (not agnosticism), and gives rise to the implied claim that there is an absence of any god from the universe. There can be no proof of a lack; there can only be the presence of something which contra

Update 3:

Wow... cut me off... said I had more characters...?

There can be no proof of a lack; there can only be the presence of something which contravenes the existence of something else. There is nothing which contravenes the existence of God; merely that which raises the question of what we define as God. How can we consider any firm belief rational if we reject beliefs of others?

Asking a question is neither rational nor irrational: it's a question. But accepting the suspension of judgment is agnosticism--which means "unknowing" in Greek. To say that you don't know or believe is agnostic; not truly atheist.

So why would one belief (a belief that God exists) be anything more or less rational than another belief (the belief that no god exists)? Beliefs are merely statements of acceptance of some idea or another as truth, aren't they?

Update 4:

Irishlad76: READ YOUR WORDS CAREFULLY:

"Religious fundamentalists do the opposite, they begin with their 'model' their 'truth' and then seek evidence to prove that model. ... So with the two epistemologies explained, the only correct position for anyone to take is a philophical skeptical one. One that demands proof to support a model."

Here is the problem with taking the position you do: it equates clearly to that of your opposition, a process you criticize and then use, where it fits to further your own position. I can't accept that you truly believe if your logical integrity doesn't accept such a correlation.

The issue with skepticism is that it seeks physical evidence for something which by its very definition is nonphysical. You are demanding proof that ice exists in the absence of the very conditions that might be able to demonstrate it. It is not rational to demand proof for something which can only be proved through experiential (i.e., subjec

Update 5:

(i.e., subjective) means, is it?

24 Answers

Relevance
  • 8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    I agree with you. I'm a very critical agnostic, who on the balance of facts doesn't believe in God, and who definately doesn't believe in organised religion, which I view as merely humanities attempt to make sense of that beyond their comprehension at the time. However, I am open to be proven wrong.

    Militant atheists who declare with an absolute that a god/gods/higher power doesn't exist, miss the whole cornerstone of what gives our 'side' its high ground in the argument, that is that we base our thoughts and knowledge upon evidence and from that evidence then models are formulated that are derived from that evidence. If new evidence emerges that doesn't match these models, we then have to either reform or abandon the model and come up with a new one that accounts for all the evidence.

    Religious fundamentalists do the opposite, they begin with their 'model' their 'truth' and then seek evidence to prove that model. Where the evidence contradicts the model, it is the evidence that is either altered or abandoned, as the 'truth' of the model can never be questioned.

    So with the two epistemologies explained, the only correct position for anyone to take is a philophical skeptical one. One that demands proof to support a model. These models must always be open to the challenge of new evidence. This is how our understanding of our world has come about. Without this approach the likes of the theory of relativity or quantum physics would never have occurred. It as once thought that the atom was the fundamental indivisible foundation of all matter, this fit in entirely with the model and explanation of the universe based upon the evidence available to us at the time. Thankfully (or perhaps not considering nuclear weapnons) this 'fundamental' and very strongly held belief was open to challenge as new evidence emerged.

    Much like if you went to Newton, and told him that the world was made up of 'vibrating strings' of energy, based on the evidence that he had at his disposal at the time, he would have dismissed it outright. But now there is much evidence that is leading to possibly confirming this model.

    So how does this related to 'god/s' or the supernatural? While as it stands now the evidence of science on the balance of things doesn't have any need for 'god' in the equation and science definatively proves that literal biblical creationism is wrong. However, to then conclude as an absolute that their is NO possibility that a god/s may exist, is not the right epistemological position, rather it should be, 'that as it stands now, I see no evidence for the existence of God/s'

    As I see it now, I don't believe in God and have been provided with no evidence to refute that. But I am always open to EVIDENCE that challenges my view of the world, and until such point that science discovers the total sum of knowledge that explains totally the creation and nature of the universe, I won't in absolute terms rule out the possibility however slim in my mind that there is the role of a greater intelligence at play.

    EDIT:

    Don't fully understand your first criticism. However on the point of the second, as per our understanding of the universe now, there is interchangeable matter and energy, there is no evidence of any other form of existence. Once again, I don't rule out this possibility that our inquiries into the world won't discover this in the future. For example, the nature of free will hasn't be resolved adequately by science to my liking. (or it has and is too bleak for my thinking. ie that free will is illusiory)

  • ?
    Lv 5
    8 years ago

    let me help you on the definition of an atheist

    Atheism is, in a broad sense, the rejection of belief in the existence of deities.[1][2] In a narrower sense, atheism is specifically the position that there are no deities.[3][4][5] Most inclusively, atheism is simply the absence of belief that any deities exist.[4][5][6][7] Atheism is contrasted with theism,[8][9] which in its most general form is the belief that at least one deity exists.[9][10]

    i just reject the belief of gods when every country has some kind of god and there all different who's right

    im not an atheist because lack of evidence but because all nations have different religions and thousand of other gods through out time.for me i see them as man made for control nothing more.

  • Mia
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    Atheism is the disbelief in deities. Your question is no different than saying people who don't believe in leprechauns are as irrational as those that hold a positive belief in leprechauns. Atheists could always alter their position should positive evidence arise. In the meanwhile the other side holds tight to a belief based on faith regardless of evidence.

    You can absolutely not know something but logically lack belief. Agnosticism and atheism are not mutually exclusive. I think you don't fully understand the usage of the terms. Look them up. I can't know for example that the Lochness monster is not real. I don't however, believe it does. Without better basis than we have it's a reasonable position. I see in your additional details that while you refuse to acknowledge your faulty argument you recognize it and try switching tactics with the ol' but god can't be shown to exist with objective evidence nonsense. Then what basis is there really to hold belief in it and what point?

  • 8 years ago

    No.

    There are so many places where I disagree with your reasoning and at points I think you are contradicting yourself, but I do not intend to set it all out. Not to be rude - it is just too late at night.

    You haven't thought about what you have written.

    One example:

    "So while there may be a general acceptance of a lacking phenomenon itself, this is in fact an irrational point of view in the absence of evidence to refute the existence of such a phenomenon."

    Nonsense. Do you believe that unicorns exist? Of course you don't. Yet by your reasoning, to say that they don't "...is in fact an irrational point of view in the absence of evidence to refute the existence of such a phenomenon."

    I could make any ridiculous claim and yet you would say it is irrational to reject it unless there is evidence to refute it. Surely you cannot stand by your claim?

  • Beyond
    Lv 6
    8 years ago

    The issue being a reason for faith, as opposed to a reason for no faith, whereas if there is "no proof" either way, the obvious choice for want of the reward benefit of having faith, would be to choose faith by default.

    This might be considered a weigh off from the choice of having a God to which you will be accountable, or having full autonomy, which considers nothing as a valid entity of accountability. Willingly restricting yourself from pleasure is a mature response to the ill effects of pleasure not obvious to the young, and sometimes not obvious to the less mature elder either.

    Again the argument returns to the issue of what the individual believes, not what is provable, but what the heart of the believer believes in.

    If the witness of 2 billion Christians is insufficient to suggest that God is, and Jesus is His Son, that the Spirit of God affects our lives in ways the non believer cannot understand without first hand experience, how does one encourage the experience? If the prophetic schema of miraculous fulfillment is insufficient to sway their ideology; and the witness of the saints past and present is discarded; if the boundless reams of philosophy and reason that have been developed and displayed by their originators to pages upon books of pages of philosophy, counting the variables of the intelligence of faith... is it then any wonder why God has said,

    "... My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years. (Gen 6:3)

    ....and again He shortens us,

    and David observes... 70 years and maybe 80 if we can stand it.

    The days of our years are threescore years and ten; and if by reason of strength they be fourscore years, yet is their strength labor and sorrow; for it is soon cut off, and we fly away. (Psa 90:10)

    Sorry, a little bias there.

    I like the philosophy aspect of Des Cartes: "I think, therefore I am"

    If your thought comes into my mind it then proves by its uniqueness that you are also, and are tangible.If God's thought were to become a part of my thinking, then I have proof of God being tangible as well, and that does not show bias, just logic.

    If I can talk to God, and he can talk to me, then He is real.

    What then is an atheist, but someone who's intelligence is based on what he alone has experienced, and not on what others have repeatedly witnessed.

    If science were indeed the proof of the non existence of God, one would have to ask what of the witness of the scientist who becomes a Christian through his study of science?

    Of course, they will claim no knowledge of any such thing, and reaffirm my point.

    You are trying to approach the heart through the head, and that is touchy and difficult surgery. I have to admit you're fairly good at it though.

    Source(s): The Bible Observation Philosophy good question!
  • 8 years ago

    Being an atheist doesn't mean that one believes absolutely that there is no god. It makes no claim to absolute knowledge. One merely acknowledges that the preponderance of evidence seems to indicate that there isn't a god, or that a god was not necessary to the existence of the universe or to the rise of life. Knowledge continues to come in, and if there was some true evidence of a god's existence, we would be remiss to ignore it.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    Atheism is a philosophical position taken in response to the proposition that God exists. If one isn't satisfied that the proposition is supported by valid evidence then disbelief would be the logical default ergo atheism is perfectly rational. Positive atheism requires evidence to support it but positive atheism is different from straightforward disbelief although you don't seem to recognise any distinction between the two.

    Edit- I should point out that my answer nails it so the thumbs down are irrelevant - the issue isn't really as complex as the questioner is making out. He asks for other people to show as little bias as possible while reserving the right for himself to exhibit bias.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    You said, "I'm noticing a lot of people defining atheism as agnostic." You have it right, those who call themselves atheists are not atheists, they are agnostics who are of the religion of atheism (or the 'atheistic faith').

    The true agnostic says, I know there is no evidence for God's existence nor any evidence against God's existence, so I refuse to take either position."

    But he DOES take a position! He assumes omniscience in claiming there is no evidence for or against God, even though there IS evidence of God's existence His position, then, is based on his faith in a lack of evidence, or actually an ignorance of the evidence for God.

  • 8 years ago

    You completely misunderstand atheism. Atheism does not make a pronouncement that God does not exist, merely that there is no evidence that He/She/It does.

    If you don't think it's rational to not believe in your god, you should ask yourself if it's rational that you don't believe in any OTHER gods. Because to atheists, it's all the same thing. They just believe in one less god than you do.

    For myself, I'm perfectly willing to say God exists, if I see evidence of it. I simply haven't seen any compelling evidence. In the meantime, all the evidence I have seen points to the opposite conclusion, that God does not exist, at least not in the way people have claimed; omnipotent, omniscient, creator of the universe and the source of all goodness. And some of that evidence includes the fact that we are having this conversation. If God really existed, and if He/She/It wanted us to believe in Him/Her/It, there would be no doubt.

    Another point. Atheists do not have a problem with God, if He/She/It exists. They have a problem with people who claim to speak for Him, but who obviously don't. To say God is all-powerful, to say He performs miracles to save people requires we ask why He doesn't save EVERYONE, if He truly loves them. Why do some people survive cancer and ascribe their good fortune to God, while others die and their families don't blame God? This inconsistency is completely illogical; if God has the power to help you, then he also has the power to NOT help you.

    And people claim we have free will to believe in Him or not. I say, not without evidence we don't! Show me He exists, and then I will have free will to follow Him or not. But until He shows Himself, He's just hiding from me, denying me the information I need to exercise my free will. In the meantime, with so many different religions clamoring for my attention, so many of them completely opposed to each other, and none of them having one shred of evidence beyond hearsay, how can you blame me for saying I'm unconvinced?

    If God really existed, we wouldn't have to BELIEVE it. We'd KNOW it.

  • 8 years ago

    In order to make a positive statement that there is NO God, one would have to be the very thing one is denying can exist.

    You cannot even say its "unlikely" ... given the size of the universe and what may or may not be beyond it, that is like two goldfish in a bowl speculating on the "likelihood" of the existence of whales saying "It's "unlikely" because there isn't one in this bowl".

    All an atheist can say is I BELIEVE there is no God.

    A faith statement if ever there was one.

    Source(s): LEARN MORE : The Origin of Life--Five Questions Worth Asking 32 page Pdf Brochure DOWNLOAD http://www.jw.org/download/?fileformat=PDF&output=...
Still have questions? Get your answers by asking now.