Christian Apologists, Was Jesus fully God?

Question

One of the attributes of being God is to be omniscient, to know all things, at all times.

Yet in the bible we have several passages that show that Jesus did not have certain knowledge.

Luke 2:39-40 "And when they had performed all things according to the law of the Lord, they returned into Galilee, to their own city Nazareth. And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him."

If Jesus was "filled with wisdom" then he must have been lacking a state of fullness of wisdom at one point, and obtained more wisdom as he aged.  The infant Jesus, must have known less than everything.

In speaking of his second coming Jesus is quoted as saying;

Matthew 24:36 "But of that day and hour knoweth no [man], no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only."

Mark 13:32 "But of that day and [that] hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."

So Jesus states that only the Father knows the date and hour of Jesus' second coming.  This means that there is some specific knowledge that Jesus did not know at that time and perhaps does not know even now.  This is clearly what Jesus is saying.

When in the Garden before his arrest, Jesus prayed;

Matthew 26:39"And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou [wilt]. "

If Jesus is God, then he would have known what was possible and what was not.  He would not have had to ask the father if he could "let this cup pass from me."  He would have known that was the only way of accomplishing the goal of redemption.  The blood sacrifice of the lamb of god to take away the sins of the world.

Would you agree that any being that does not have the defining power of Deity of omniscience, no matter how exalted a being, cannot be God?  Such a being must be less than God.  If Jesus is God, would he lack any knowledge?

Background: I am a christian and accept as an article of faith the orthodox view of Jesus as the second person of the trinity.  I believe that Jesus was and is God, the Logos.  Yet I find it hard to reconcile that belief with these passages of scripture.

Would Jesus, during his life as a man on earth, set aside the attributes of omniscience?  Would he not be less than God at that point?  How then can he be both fully human and fully God at the same time?

Applecake · Accepted Answer

God is not a man, nor is he the son of man (Numbers 23:19). God said, "I am God and not man" (Hosea 11:9).

Deuteronomy 18:18-19
18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
19 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.

There is one God, and there is one mediator between God and me, the man Christ Jesus (1 Timothy 2:5; Isaiah 53; Galatians 3:20).

God will judge the world by the man whom he has ordained, and he has assured us that he has raised him from the dead (Acts 17:31; Romans 2:16; Acts 10:38-42).

"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ" -Paul, Ephesians 1

Yahweh said, "I change not". Malachi 3:6- If God said he is not man, then that didn't change and will not change.

Jesus the man is what the word "became". God created by the breath of his mouth, his word (Psalms 33:6). We see this happened in Genesis 1, "Let there be light" and of course since God said it, there was light. Jesus declared God whom no one has ever seen (John 1:18).

Isaiah 45:18
18 For thus saith the Lord (Yahweh) that created the heavens; God (ha-ELOHIM) himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord (Yahweh); and there is none else.

ELOHIM himself said "I". There is none else.

Concerning Colossians
http://scripturesspeak.blogspot.com/2012/06/study-in-colossians.html

Anonymous · Answer

Jesus is the last of the line of Melchizadek, without Father, without Mother...
it is in Hebrews.  

Jesus took all the sins of the world upon Himself, and no one can HAVE sin and
do that.

Everyone who comes to this earth is a sinner, born into sin.  Thus a normal
created human has sin.

Jesus knew no sin.  Only God can know no sin.

The Jews wanted to stone Jesus...and it explains why... And they
explain that it's not because of A. but because of B.
I think you know this scripture.

My favorite is Jesus' saying 'I AM the Good Shepherd' and in
Psalm 23, 'The Lord IS My Shepherd'.

Of course, we all know the scripture 'I and My Father are One'.

So many scriptures.  
Mary or Miriam was a surrogate mother, and only in the last 60 years
has this even been possible.  Mary was blessed to bring Jesus into
this world, and when we study the background of each person,
Mary & Joseph, it gets clear why they were chosen.

J H · Answer

The plan of Salvation is first found in what we call the O.T.Here, we learn that man
is in need of Redemption from sin.Search the scriptures, for in them, is the hope of
Salvation and they speak of Me, Jesus.Is the battle about the Father being Theos,
why not? The Gift of Theos who was in the Bosom of the Father, He is the One who
reveals the Father throughout His ministry.The apostles were searching for Aw Done,
the King of Israel. If Jesus was this person, then He was indeed Theos.If He was not
'Aw Done',(Adonai)  then He was not the promised Messiah!

    The N.T. does not begin with the birth of Christ as is supposed but with His death 
on the cross, as the apostle Paul stated, " that the Covenant is only in force when
the death of the testator occurs.We are sanctified by the offering of Jesus the Christ.
   Jesus was not a man because He lowered Himself and took unto Himself the form
morphe,of a man.No man could in any way change their form.It was made clear that
Jesus could not have any advantage over the natural man or else satan would have
protested.Jesus as the son of man had to fulfill all Righteousness, starting with the 
bapism of John,who like Peter.perceived who Jesus was and was reluctant to even
baptize Him.
  Jesus was filled with all Wisdom and Grace, showing that He did not have the spirit
of the natural man but a Spirit that did not have to be regenerated in order for the 
Father to dwell in Him.
   Jesus did not know the time of His return to the earth because He was 
not yet Glorified.
As long as He was on the earth, He had to depend on the Father 
as we would later totally depend on Jesus.All Judgement was given 
to Him by the Father, so that all men would place the same value on 
Jesus as they would the Father.Jesus taught His followers how
to pray when they were under the O.T. and when He was about 
to be offered He told them, " You have asked nothing hitherto in 
my Name, giving them the go ahead to pray to Him. and ask what they will".
    When Jesus asked the Father to remove His cup and prayed not My will. 
He spoke the Truth that was in Him, showing that the One not 
having sin, abhored sin but was willing to obey the Father in death 
as we must show our perfect obedience to the Lord Jesus.

  Towards the end of His ministry, Jesus showed clearly that He was not a man. " There is
One here that is greather than the temple"; Solomon was the wisest man 
born of women, There is one here greater and wiser than Solomon; 
" How say they that Christ' is Davids' son? David called Him 'Aw-Done', (Adonai)
Lord, how can He be his son? 

At that point, they dared not ask Jesus any more questions.

OPsaltis · Answer

The Word of God, incarnated as Jesus Christ, did set aside some of the prerogatives of the Godhead to assume human flesh.

"Though he was God, he did not think of equality with God as something to cling to.
Instead, he gave up his divine privileges; he took the humble position of a slave and was born as a human being. When he appeared in human form,
he humbled himself in obedience to God and died a criminal's death on a cross.
Therefore, God elevated him to the place of highest honor and gave him the name above all other names,
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. "Philippians 2:6-11 NLT

Note that sometimes the Father is referred to as "God the Father", and sometimes as "God", even though the first phrase states that the preincarnate Word was also God.  We do the same thing today. It's sloppy, but common.

Christ was not half-God/half-man, but as the ancient Christian writers affirm, is fully God and fully man at the same time. 

Forgive me.
/Orthodox

? · Answer

Jesus NEVER spoke of His 2nd coming. That is people. God knew they had been on earth in every generation. John 16 v 28. "AGAIN I leave the world." Deuteronomy 29 v 2-6. And Moses' gathered all the people together and said "I am your God." KJV. In other bibles' they altered the words' to He is, defying God.  Also Jesus was not God, God was born on earth and was named Jesus as you were born and given your name. Religion has both the trinity and the bible wrong.

the Christian · Answer

Your creating your own gospel thru your own personal interpretation of scripture...by adding and subtracting to the word of God.....that is a sin? Jesus loves you...

Anonymous · Answer

Jesus is Son of God through Mary..he Is half human,half God.

Computer Glow · Answer

Yes, of course.  Jesus was fully human and fully God.  =)

MoreOvaltinePlease · Answer

No he was the son of GD. IF you read people were bowing down to JC at one point int he NT and JC commanded them not to bow to him but to bow down and praise GD for he is the heavenly father.

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Christian Apologists, Was Jesus fully God?

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