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Goldenchest
Lv 4
Goldenchest asked in Science & MathematicsEngineering · 8 years ago

Integral of sinx from 0 to pi/2?

My calculator gives me a value of 1. But how is that possible?

The integral of sinx is -cosx, and cos(pi/2) is 0.

Does the integral of sinx have a special property that I am missing?

1 Answer

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  • billrussell42
    Lv 7
    8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Integral from 0 to π/2 means you calculate the the value of the integral at π/2 – the value at 0

    –cos(π/2) – (–cos0)

    0 +1

    1

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