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Quagmire asked in Social ScienceAnthropology · 8 years ago

Is it fair say that populations from sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia have changed less than others?

What I mean is that, could one safely say that at least for the past couple thousand years, populations from Asia, specifically South and East Asia, and sub-Saharan Africa, have experienced fewer invasions and migrations and therefore have maintained a more constant gene pool?

Europe and the Middle East experienced tremendous internal and external migrations and invasions during and after Greco-Roman civilization and into the Dark and Middle Ages, and slavery was also widely practiced in both areas during these time periods.

For instance, I doubt the populations of China, India, Southeast Asia, or Japan have changed as much as the populations of various European countries on account of invasion/migration. Agree?

Update:

@Freethinking Liberal: You misunderstood my question. I'm aware that there is more genetic variation within sub-Saharan Africa than elsewhere since that's where humanity originated, but that also means that each population within sub-Saharan Africa is therefore distinct from others. For example, the San, Pygmy, Bantu, etc. However, what I was asking was whether the gene pools of those individual sub-Saharan (and East Asian) populations have changed as much as those of European or Middle Eastern populations on account of all of the invasions and migrations that took place in those areas over the past few thousand years.

As for Mongolian emperors in China, did Mongols heavily settle in China or was it more along the lines of taking over control of the country, like what the Chinese did to Tibet in more recent history?

4 Answers

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  • ?
    Lv 4
    8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    India, in South Asia, is one of the most, if the most diverse place on earth. And that's because of the hundreds of invasions, and migrations that place in India.

  • 8 years ago

    I am sorry, your hypothesis falls.

    There is more diversity in the gene pool of sub-Saharan Africa than the whole of the rest of the world put together.

    As for China, India, Southeast Asia, and Japan not having invasion/migration, you do need to read up your history of that area as there has been every bit as much as in Europe. Indeed the Emperors of China were Mongolians for a long time and of the same dynasty that invaded Europe.

  • Shansi
    Lv 5
    8 years ago

    There were Migrations from Sub saharan Africa to the outside but there were little migration going inside.

    The East Asian population have changed a lot, particularly China and Japan's. Korea has managed to retain its Mongolian-descent population while China had a lot of ethnic groups mingling together. In fact, during the Tong and Sung dynasties, many artworks of people in China did not look like Han Chinese (the 'Chinese' people).

    Japan's history is rather difficult. The native Jomon and Emishu had constant encounters with Sakhalin (Central Asian descent) and Austronesian and Chinese groups, respectively. Then, the Yayoi period came - apparently from multiple sources. The Queen Himiko of Wa claims descent from the court of Taibou, the ruler of the Kingdom of Wu. Northern 'chiefs' and kings claim descent from Chinese (this would make them seem culturally superior) and genetic theories suggest some were Koreans ethnic groups. Either way, the Japanese nobles at some point preferred to marry non-Japanese nobles due to politics. Manchurian were also held to high esteem and mixing with them is non-issue.

    The Okinawans are a blend of Chinese, Yamato, and Jomon. THe northern Ainu group are central asians mixed with Yamato. Constant emigration to Japan stoppped during the isolation period.

    As for the Mongols: They kinda sucked at ruling people. One pro side of having Mongolian overlord was the meritocracy (people got jobs by merit not by ethnic group or lineage) that came with them. But in general, the Mongolians kinda kept to themselves.

  • 8 years ago

    No lol

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