Christians, are these things true?

1. Applicable to Jews under the law for certain historic and cultural reasons; does not apply to Gentiles under the New Covenant (Rom. 14; Col. 2; Gal. 5-6)

2. Applicable to Jews under the law for certain historic and cultural reasons; does not apply to Gentiles under the New Covenant (Rom. 14; Col. 2; Gal. 5-6)

3. Part of the moral, spiritual law. Reinforced in New Testament (Col. 2), still applicable.

4. Only applicable to that specific scenario where there was a breech of agreement. This is not a general rule across the board.

5. Still applicable under 1 Thes. 5 and Ephesians 5.

6. Applicable to Jews under the law for certain historic and cultural reasons; does not apply to Gentiles under the New Covenant (Rom. 14; Col. 2; Gal. 5-6)

7. Matthew 19 & 1 Cor. 7 allows divorce for fornication/adultery, abandonment, and abuse. Otherwise, it is still forbidden.

8. Applicable to Jews under the law for certain historic and cultural reasons; does not apply to Gentiles under the New Covenant (Rom. 14; Col. 2; Gal. 5-6). This also had to do with the protovangelum (Gen. 3:15-16) and pure genealogies and generations (Gen 6) in Judaism.

9. The idea is out-of-place ostentatiousness; is not a 100% ban. Phil. 4:5.

10. Applicable to Jews under the law for certain historic and cultural reasons; does not apply to Gentiles under the New Covenant (Rom. 14; Col. 2; Gal. 5-6)

11. Applicable to Jews under the law for certain historic and cultural reasons; does not apply to Gentiles under the New Covenant (Rom. 14; Col. 2; Gal. 5-6). Again, due to the Jewish emphasis on seed and heritage. This might affect #4. Look at the context of #4 in scripture.

Despite any of these issue, yes, we have certainly all sinned.

Galatians 3:22 (KJV)

But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

Romans 3:23 (KJV)

For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;