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Juan
Lv 6
Juan asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 8 years ago

How does (x - 1)! / (x!) = (1/x) ?

Can you explain please?

6 Answers

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  • 8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    x! = x*(x-1)!

    so

    (x-1)!/x! = (x-1)!/x*(x-1)! = 1/x

  • frank
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    by definition :

    0! = 1 and,

    x! = x(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)...3x2x1

    x! = x(x-1)!

    so, (x-1)!/x! = 1/x

    (x-1)!/(x-1)! = 1/x

    1 = 1/x

    1/1 = 1/x (crossed product)

    x = 1 (answer)

    verification => (x -1)!/(x!) = (1/x)

    (1-1)!/(1!) = 1/1

    0!/(1!) = 1

    1/1 = 1

    1 = 1

  • Como
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    (x - 1)!

    -----------

    x!

    (x - 1) !

    -------------

    x (x - 1) !

    1

    ------

    x

  • 8 years ago

    (x - 1)! = (x - 1)(x - 2)(x - 3)...(2)(1)

    (x)! = x(x - 1)(x - 2)(x - 3)...(2)(1)

    So, (x - 1)! / (x)! cancels out all terms, besides x, which is on the denominator, hence 1 / x

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    (x - 1)! = (x - 1)(x - 2)(x - 3)....1

    x! = x(x - 1)(x - 2)(x - 3)....1

    so, (x - 1)! cancels to leave 1/x

    :)>

  • 8 years ago

    because (x - 1)! / x (x - 1)! ..............[ as x! is same as x (x - 1) !]

    => after cancelling out (x-1)! you'll have 1 / x.

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