Can you find me the word Homosexual or the word Lesbian in the bible anywhere ?

The book of Leviticus is what is always trotted out: it's a list of rules for Jewish priests to ensure they did not introduce the religious practices of other religions into theirs. The last Jewish priests died out some 2000 years ago.

The original in the Hebrew Bible says: (Leviticus 18:22)

It all boils down to deliberate falsifications in the relevant translations of the Bible.

The original in the Hebrew Bible says: (Leviticus 18:22) And with a male, thou shalt not lie down in a woman's bed; it is an abomination (to'evah). A taboo, therefore, like not shaking hands with a woman in case she is menstruating. A woman's bed was her own property and even her husband was not always allowed into it.

“To’evah“ is explained by rabbinical authorities as "making a mistake" - hardly a sin).

Subsequent translations into Greek, Latin and English translate it wrongly and manage to include a condemnation of homosexuality into it. The Emperors Theodosius II and Justinian picked this up and included the condemnation in Roman law, primarily so that they could use it against men they wanted get rid of, the first one being a gay bishop of Alexandria.sexuality is absolutely forbidden, for it is an enormous sin"

New Living Translation (1996): "Do not practice homosexuality; it is a detestable sin.

A “mistake” has become an “abomination” (meaning something Jewish priests should not do).

Then “abomination” becomes “an enormous sin”

and “a detestable sin” all In stages easily swallowed by the gullible, who couldn't or wouldn't read for themselves.

The "living Bible" is a joke, by the way. It reduces the scene between David and Jonathan where they wept and kissed and David “exceeded“ and they then went on to discuss their semen to - wait for it - "they shook hands".

Ruth 1:14, referring to the relationship between Ruth and Naomi, mentions that "Ruth clave onto her." (KJV) The Hebrew word translated here as "clave" is identical to that used in the description of a heterosexual marriage in Genesis .

When Saul of Tarsus set about his takeover of the early Christian churches, he found them all practising a form of Christianity older than his new project. They also allowed women to speak in church and sex between men and men and between women and women. He fired off some managerial directives to Corinth and Rome to get them to stop that, because he hated all forms of sex,as he admitted.

However, it is clear that what those churches were practising was the original form of Christianity as preached by Jesus, and it condoned homosexual relationships.

So what's your problem? I reckon it's preacher talk that got to you.

I don't think anyone in Moses' day understood the concept of being homosexual. Their experience was with the common practice of shepherds having sex with each other while away for long periods tending to their flocks, a matter of convenience, not attraction, at least on the surface. Think "Brokeback Mountain." All Paul did was parrot Moses. There is no record of Jesus ever commenting on the subject. Straight people then, like straight people today, only saw the act, not the attraction.

The destruction of Sodom is often cited as an example of how God abhors gays and gay sex. The Sodomites may have been viewed with disdain by their neighbors for their orgies and homosexual acts, but their city was destroyed as punishment for seducing strangers -- and raping angels.

You realize that words can be translated, correct? While the word "homosexual" didn't exist, it doesn't mean that the Hebrew language didn't have an equivalent. The context of many of these verses also confirm it is talking about homosexuality. I don't buy into the bible, but there is no doubt that it opposes homosexuality. For example, look at Romans 1:26-27:

"26 Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error."

There is also 1 Corinithians 6:9-10 which explicitly says that homosexuals will be going to hell.

"9 Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men[a] 10 nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."

These are both new testament as well, so it's hardly like you can pretend that this doesn't apply to modern Christianity. I personally don't believe the bible, but to claim it doesn't oppose homosexuality is absurd. It says very clearly that gays are immoral, need to be put to death, and are going to hell.

The Bible does deal with sodomites (you can find this word in it), and it is against God's will, but in the Bible there are a lot of "misogynistic laws" too... I don't believe in eternal hell neither for gays nor for "sinner" women: you need to keep in mind the historical/cultural context in which the Bible was written