What are the mathematical odds of this happening?

Here are the rules for Omaha poker: you get four cards. Then there is the flop of three cards, then the turn card, then the river card. You can only use two of your cards, and must use three of the common cards.

I have counted each instance of the following occurrence: the flop is three of the same suit, and none of my four cards is that suit. This happened 53 consecutive times that the flop was a flush draw. On the 54th hand I got one card of that suit, and finally on the 63rd hand I got two of that suit, but it was not until the 71st hand I had two of that suit and won.

What are the odds of this?

Sorry I really am not in love with statistics. I think you need to post this there and they can give you a direct answer. I'm sure the odds are low, but how low?

"All is well that ends well". Read the play written by William Shakespeare.