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Teachers of English Language?
Hi, as someone who has helped may people of various origins; develop a basic grasp of the English language, I am plagued by a recurring question, for which I feel my answer is insufficient. This is in regards to the use of The word “Have” when use in its present and past form consecutively.
“I have had” whilst we natural speakers of English do not have a problem with this, it is somewhat difficult to explain to people of a foreign tongue.
“ I have had several cars”
“ I have over the year been in possession of several cars”
this is my explanation it cuts down on the amount of words we have to use, and speeds up conversation.
So can anyone give me a better definition or explanation and also, although we all tend to use this does it constitute good English, acceptable or poor English
2 Answers
- Anonymous7 years agoFavorite Answer
I think that I know what you mean, As I have encountered this problem, the way I get round this to explain it as follows.
"Have had" encapsulates a period of time from past to present, which may or may not be expressed next, but will be relevant to the subject stated.
This translates quiet well in to the languages I know and it seems to be understood very well
- GuantanamoGeorgeLv 77 years ago
The first "have" is an auxiliary verb that has a different use and meaning than the "have" in "to have."
"I have had" has the same meaning and structure as "I have possessed" or "I have owned."
A similar case is the first and second "do" in "How do you do that?"
