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Why is using women fro sex considered wrong?

If it is consensual, why should it matter if i never see her again, or tell her that i was just using her the morning after?

3 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    If you told a woman you were just using her for sex before then she would have the opportunity to refuse her. When you do as you describe you are misleading her to believe that there's the possibility of developing a relationship. Basically misrepresenting your intentions. Do I really need to explain why that is wrong morally? If you are an adult you should already know this!

  • aj
    Lv 5
    5 years ago

    It isn't if you both agree. It is sad when you have to lie to get laid. I guess you could see the problem with it more clearly if a guy treated your mother or sister in such a way and it hurt them. Just be honest, there are a ton of women who have no problem with a one night stand. No need to drag someone into your game that never wanted to play.

  • 5 years ago

    If you're "using" someone, it isn't consensual.

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