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How can I prove that the error function is normalized? That is; erf(infinity) = 1?

Update:

I do the integral from the definition of the erf function, and end up with the erf function again, lol. Is there another way I should go about trying to prove it?

Update 2:

Ok, so I finally figured it out. Switching to polar was the trick. For the record, to everyone answering questions on here, please don't just add a link to Wikipedia, lol. I may be an anomaly I suppose, but I am here because I have tapped all my other references.

1 Answer

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  • kb
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    By definition,

    erf(x) = (2/√π) ∫(t = 0 to x) e^(-t^2) dt.

    To show that this is normalized, we need to show that

    (2/√π) ∫(t = 0 to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt = 1.

    This is equivalent to the following:

    (1/√π) ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt = 1, since the integrand is even

    <==> ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt = √π.

    ----

    This latter integral is the well-known Gaussian integral, whose value can be deduced via polar coordinates:

    Let I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt.

    So, I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2) dx = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-y^2) dy, dummy var. change

    ==> I * I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2) dx * ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-y^2) dy

    ==> I^2 = ∫(-∞ to ∞) ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-(x^2 + y^2) dx dy.

    Converting to polar coordinates yields

    I^2 = ∫(θ = 0 to 2π) ∫(r = 0 to ∞) e^(-r^2) * (r dr dθ)

    ......= 2π * (-1/2)e^(-r^2) {for r = 0 to ∞}

    ......= π.

    Since I > 0, we conclude that I = √π, as required.

    I hope this helps!

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