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How can I prove that the error function is normalized? That is; erf(infinity) = 1?
I do the integral from the definition of the erf function, and end up with the erf function again, lol. Is there another way I should go about trying to prove it?
Ok, so I finally figured it out. Switching to polar was the trick. For the record, to everyone answering questions on here, please don't just add a link to Wikipedia, lol. I may be an anomaly I suppose, but I am here because I have tapped all my other references.
1 Answer
- kbLv 75 years ago
By definition,
erf(x) = (2/√π) ∫(t = 0 to x) e^(-t^2) dt.
To show that this is normalized, we need to show that
(2/√π) ∫(t = 0 to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt = 1.
This is equivalent to the following:
(1/√π) ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt = 1, since the integrand is even
<==> ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt = √π.
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This latter integral is the well-known Gaussian integral, whose value can be deduced via polar coordinates:
Let I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-t^2) dt.
So, I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2) dx = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-y^2) dy, dummy var. change
==> I * I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2) dx * ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-y^2) dy
==> I^2 = ∫(-∞ to ∞) ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-(x^2 + y^2) dx dy.
Converting to polar coordinates yields
I^2 = ∫(θ = 0 to 2π) ∫(r = 0 to ∞) e^(-r^2) * (r dr dθ)
......= 2π * (-1/2)e^(-r^2) {for r = 0 to ∞}
......= π.
Since I > 0, we conclude that I = √π, as required.
I hope this helps!