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Jehovah's Witness, in looking at John 1:1-3 how can you say that Jesus is a created being?
In the beginning was the Word,+ and the Word was with God,+ and the Word was a god.*+ 2 This one was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into existence through him,+ and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. (NWT)
Vs 3 tell us that ALL THINGS came into existance through him, then it goes on futher to say apart from him NOT ONE THING came into existance.
So if he was created then John 1:3 is not correct, or is it that you got it wrong?
10 Answers
- Annsan_In_HimLv 75 years agoFavorite Answer
Most folk know that the JWs have their own New World Translation where they have rendered John 1:1 as "...and the Word was a god". They invoke the fact that there is no definite article before 'theos' the second time (ho theos always means THE God, never a god, and it occurs the first time like that). It is only fair to consider this point.
The rule of Greek grammar that applies to John 1:1 is Colwell's rule - "A definite predicate nominative has the article when it comes after the verb; it does not have the article when it stands before the verb." The exception to this rule is only when the context demands it. JWs claim the context of John 1:1 demands it. Does it?
In the JW Greek Interlinear appendix on John 1:1, it claims that "At Acts 26:6 we have a case paralleling that of John 1:1, with exactly the same predicate construction, namely, with an anarthrous theos." Not so! Acts 28:6 has the predicate nominative 'theon' following the verb 'einai'. In John 1:1 the predicate nominative 'theon' precedes the verb.
Here is a quotation about this from Greek scholar, Dr. J. Johnson who translates John 1:1 as "...the Word was God":
"There is no syntactical parallel to Acts 28:6, where there is a statement in indirect discourse, John 1:1 is direct. I am neither a Christian nor a Trinitarian."
So there is an objective view, put forward by a nonsectarian authority.
Further, the NWT violates its own translating principles about this when it comes to John 1:6. There is no definite article with 'theos' there, yet they translate it as THE God. Again, in verses 12, 13 and 18, the article is omitted before 'theos' as in verse 1, yet they render it as THE God. It is too obvious for words that they only invoke the lack of the definite article when Jesus is the subject. They will not have 'their' Bible say that Jesus is God.
Your second point is also important. If the Word (who became Jesus) made everything that was made, then logically He could not have been made Himself. If Jesus had been made by Jehovah, verse 3 would have had to read, "All other things came into existence through him, and without him not even one other thing came into existence."
Curiously, the NWT adds the word 'other' other times when Jesus is being spoken of (e.g. Philippians 2:9 & Colossians 1:16-20 where the word is added 5 times) to give the impression that Jesus is inferior to Jehovah, having been created by Jehovah. Surely they should have been consistent and added 'other' to John 1:3? But it is a serious thing to add words to God's word, for those added words do not clarify the meaning - they detract from the meaning as to Jesus being the uncreated Creator.
Yes, the JWs have got it seriously wrong but none of them will admit there's a major problem with their rendition.
- StephLv 75 years ago
They've gotten it wrong. There is absolutely no way to read this passage that says ALL THINGS came through Him and then say He is created and part of the "all things" that came through Him. Honestly, something would have to be very wrong with your comprehension or brain function or something to actually think this passage says two completely contradictory things.
Also, this passage contradicts the other passage in their Bible - Col. 1:15-17, as well as others. Give it time...perhaps they will add {other} to John 1 as well. They're already condemned for changing God's word anyway. I don't think anyone will be able to help them get out of that. Rev. 22:18-19
- Anonymous5 years ago
"Jehovah's Witness, in looking at John 1:1-3 how can you say that Jesus is a created being?"
This scripture does not identify Jesus as Jehovah. It shows us that the word was with God and was like God (divine, deity, godlike).
This scripture shows us that Jesus has the same divine qualities that God has.
The Word was brought into existence before everything else and then Jehovah created everything else THROUGH the Word.
- 5 years ago
In Colossians 1:15-17 it states that Jesus was created in the image of the invisible God so Jesus had to be created in order to be in an image of someone or something. Then all other things were created through him and he was Gods masterworker. John chapter 1 always uses the word God interchangeably some instances capitalize the "G"
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- Anonymous5 years ago
Jehovah's Witnesses are not given the right teachings.
- CFLv 75 years ago
Your reasoning doesn´make sense. Did Jesus create himself? He is part of creation too. That´s why he´s called the Firstborn. Jesus is the image of his Father.
Col 1:15
He is the image of the invisible God,+ the firstborn of all creation.
Revelation 3:14
14 “To the angel of the congregation in La·o·di·ceʹa+ write: These are the things that the Amen+ says, the faithful and true+ witness,+ the beginning of the creation by God.
- DP.Lv 65 years ago
This is because the light that's due to get brighter in the newer version of the NWT has not yet been revealed....
.. or to put in blunt truthful words.... they haven't change their version of the bible yet to cover off this objection but wait awhile and you'll see the word "other" magically appear here!
- k wLv 75 years ago
you misquote...."Word was a god" is incorrect, it is, was God, not a god....Christ also said, " I and the Father are one", and if you need that explained to you, I cannot help you, sorry.
- Anonymous5 years ago
They got it wrong, obviously.