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Difficult integration problem (from my perspective).?

Show that the integral (from -pi/2 to pi/2) of

tan^2 (x) (pi^2/4 - x^2) dx

is infinite,

But integral (from -pi/2 to pi/2) of

|tan x| ((pi^2/4 - x^2) dx is finite.

Update:

The original integral was:

integral (-inf to inf) of [y^2/(1 + y^2)] * [pi^2/4 - [atan (x)]^2] dx

I made the substitution x = atan (y) to get the integral shown in the question.

For the integral with the modulus, the original integral is:

integral (-inf to inf) of [|y|/(1 + y^2)] * [pi^2/4 - [atan (x)]^2] dx

Update 2:

The original integral was:

integral (-inf to inf) of [y^2/(1 + y^2)] * [pi^2/4 - [atan (y)]^2] dy

I made the substitution x = atan (y) to get the integral shown in the question.

For the integral with the modulus, the original integral is:

integral (-inf to inf) of [|y|/(1 + y^2)] * [pi^2/4 - [atan (y)]^2] dy

1 Answer

Relevance
  • kb
    Lv 7
    4 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    a) ∫(x = -π/2 to π/2) tan²x dx/(π²/4 - x²)

    = 2 ∫(x = 0 to π/2) tan²x dx/(π²/4 - x²), since the integrand is even

    = 2 ∫(x = 0 to π/2) tan²x dx/[(π/2 - x) (π/2 + x)]

    = 2 ∫(w=π/2 to 0) tan²(π/2 - w) * (-dw)/[w (π/2 + π/2 - w)], letting w=π/2 - x

    = 2 ∫(w = 0 to π/2) tan²(π/2 - w) dw/[w(π - w)]

    = 2 ∫(w = 0 to π/2) cot²w dw/[w(π - w)]

    Since the integral is only improper at w = 0, this will converge

    iff ∫(w = 0 to π/4) cot²w dw/[w(π - w)] converges.

    However, for w in (0, π/4), we have

    cot²w/[w(π - w)]

    > cot²w/[w(π - 0)]

    = 1/(πw tan²w)

    > 1/(πw tan²π/4)

    = 1/(πw).

    Since ∫(w = 0 to π/4) dw/(πw) = (1/π) ln w {for w = 0 to π/4} = ∞, we conclude that ∫(w = 0 to π/4) cot²w dw/[w(π - w)] diverges by the Comparison Test.

    Therefore, ∫(x = -π/2 to π/2) tan²x dx/(π²/4 - x²) is divergent.

    ----

    b) According to Wolfram Alpha,

    ∫(x = -π/2 to π/2) |tan x| dx/(π²/4 - x²) is divergent.

    (This can be showed with similar reasoning as in part a.)

    -------

    I hope this helps!

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