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Polar coordinates, interval of integration?

1) Why is the interval of integration for dθ from just 0 to π?

It interval kinda looks like it's from -π/4 to π/4. So I can see the "duration" of the integral is π radians also. So...

2) Why does it not matter where we start our integration? What am I missing?

Update:

Oh and on a test:

3) How could I know the interval of integration was just π, since I wouldn't have any graphical aid.

Attachment image

2 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    3 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    (r*cos(θ) - 1)^2 + ((r*sin(θ))^2) = 1;

    (r*cos(θ) - 2)^2 + ((r*sin(θ))^2)= 4;

    r = 2*cos(θ);

    r = 4*cos(θ);

    Limits are from -π/2 <= θ <= π/2;

    int_(-π/2)^(π/2) int_(2*cos(θ))^(4*cos(θ)) int_0^(4 - ((r*cos(θ) - 2)^2) - ((r*sin(θ))^2)) r dz dr dθ = 11π/2

    It just so happens when you do the limits of integration for this case it works out:

    m = θ + (π/2); dm = dθ; m - (π/2) = θ

    int_(0)^(π) int_(2*cos(m - (π/2)))^(4*cos(m - (π/2))) int_0^(4 - ((r*cos(m - (π/2)) - 2)^2) - ((r*sin(m - (π/2)))^2)) r dz dr dm;

    Let m = θ; dm = dθ;

    int_(0)^(π) int_(2*sin(θ))^(4*sin(θ)) int_0^(4 - ((r*sin(θ) - 2)^2) - ((-r*cos(θ))^2)) r dz dr dθ =

    int_(0)^(π) int_(2*sin(θ))^(4*sin(θ)) int_0^(4 - ((r*sin(θ) - 2)^2) - ((r*cos(θ))^2)) r dz dr dθ = 11π/2

  • Amy
    Lv 7
    3 years ago

    The interval -π/2 to π/2 is also a valid description of the circles. The positive r values over (-π/2,0) describe the same (x,y) points as the negative r values over (π/2, π).

    Without solving the entire problem, I'll guess that using the 0 bound makes the integral easier.

    For a test, you just need to memorize the equations of some simple graphs such as a circle.

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