It has been said that the KJV Bible says, "If a man rapes a woman, he is allowed to marry her." Where exactly is that located?

The verses which supposedly say this are Deuteronomy 22:28-29,

"28 If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;

29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days."

So firstly it must be understood that the man in this scenario doesn't get the right to marry the damsel, in fact he is the one who is denied choice. The father of the damsel and the damsel herself retain their rights under Jewish law. The father of the damsel has the right (if he chooses to exercise it) to require the man to marry the woman.

A lot of answerers are debating about whether the man forced the woman against her will or whether the sex was consensual. In fact this is still a major forensic problem even to this day.

These days there is a major concern about instances of "date rape" where the evidence comes down to the woman's word against the man's as to whether she consented or not. Do we convict a man of a major crime on the woman's word alone, or do we acquit him? Especially when "your word against mine" usually isn't considered "proof beyond reasonable doubt" in other areas of criminal law.

In Deuteronomy 22:28 what has happened is that the man has had sex with a virgin damsel. Whether she was forced or not is difficult to say: in those days she wouldn't want to admit to consensual sex out of wedlock, but the man denies forcing her. It is unjust for the man to be executed when there is no real proof he has raped her. But she has lost her virginity, and in those days her chances to get married in the future have been considerably reduced. And the father can no longer get the bride price of a virgin for her.

So the man is required to pay the bride price as she is no longer a virgin. If he forcibly raped her than the damsel would ask her father not to make him marry her, or she might even refuse the marriage. But if what happened was a seduction then she wants the father to enforce the marriage because her chances of any other marriage in the future are reduced.

Deuteronomy 22:28-29 was a way to deal with the situation when one person is crying "rape" and the other person is denying it.

Such laws were for the old time Jews. not for Christians. Jesus never taught this.

That's not precisely true.

It doesn't say that.

A person can find many things by way of having true devotion to Saint Anthony, who is the finder of lost items and the Hammer of Heretics.

The passage you referenced concerns raping a woman married to another man.

Try Deuteronomy 22:28-29

People who claim to read the Bible should actually read the whole thing.

The passage they so wrongly refer to is about a consensual affair