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Coca asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 4 weeks ago

How did the policy of appeasement cause World War II?

6 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    4 weeks ago

    Fact Chamberlin Gave Hitler until 1100 Hrs  to leave Poland or a state of war will exist between the UK and Germany

    HITLER CHOSE WAR

    it showed the weakness of Chamberlin Hitler knew he would not do anything to stop him the UK did Nothing the French did Nothing the USA funded him from 1924 until 1945 and FDR approved it

    Hitler was funded By the Rockefeller's in the Belief Hitler would Go to war with the Communists he took the Money and Honored the Agreementthe USA never did anything to stop him whilst the UK was Trying AppeasementHitler took all this as approval and of he wentAmerica with the collusion of the vice-chairman of the U.S. War Production Board in partnership with Göring's cousin in Philadelphia when American forces were desperately short of everything and such arrangements were known about in Washington and either sanctioned or deliberately ignored?For the government did sanction dubious transactions—both before and after Pearl Harbor. A presidential edict, issued six days after December 7, 1941, actually set up the legislation whereby licensing arrangements for trading with the enemy could officially be granted.Often during the years after Pearl Harbor the government permitted such trading. For example, ITT was allowed to continue its relations with the Axis and Japan until 1945, even though that conglomerate was regarded as an official instrument of United States Intelligence.No attempt was made to prevent Ford from retaining its interests for the Germans in Occupied France, nor were the Chase Bank or the Morgan Bank expressly forbidden to keep open their branches in Occupied Paris. It is indicated that the Reichsbank and Nazi Ministry of Economics made promises to certain U.S. corporate leaders that their properties would not be injured after the Führer was victorious.Thus, the bosses of the multinationals as we know them today had a six-spot on every side of the dice cube. Whichever side won the war, the powers that really ran nations would not be adversely affected.And it is important to consider the size of American investments in Nazi Germany at the time of Pearl Harbor. These amounted to an estimated total of $475 million. Standard Oil of New Jersey had $120 million invested there; General Motors had $35 million; ITT had $30 million; and Ford had $17.5 million. Though it would have been more patriotic to have allowed Nazi Germany to confiscate these companies for the duration—to nationalize them or to absorb them into Hermann Göring's industrial empire—it was clearly more practical to insure them protection from seizure by allowing them to remain in special holding companies, the money accumulating until war's end. It is interesting that whereas there is no evidence of any serious attempt by Roosevelt to impeach the guilty in the United States,reason FDR was afraid of Upsetting Corporate USA whose Cooperation was desperately needed to win the War in the Pacific

    the Uk passed the Treason act for trading with the enemy in 1939

    because many people Invested in Hitler

    Albert Speer said in 1940 if Prescott Bush had Not sold High Octane fuel to the Luftwaffe the Germans would not have been able to Invade Poland

  • Rita
    Lv 6
    4 weeks ago

    Appeasement emboldened Hitler's Germany, essentially leading to WWII. As Hitler continued to invade territories and build a military capable of fighting a major war—despite the Treaty of Versailles—Britain and France allowed him to continue, hoping he would leave them alone if they left him alone.

  • ?
    Lv 6
    4 weeks ago

    "Appeasement" didn't cause WW2. Chamberlain settled the dispute at the Munich Conference with compromise - the role of a good leader is to settle disputes peacefully.

    Churchill was a well-known and respectable figure in Britain - but he was also a warmonger. When Chamberlain returned from the Munich Conference, he was viewed as a hero to his people. But that was before Churchill publicly denounced him as an appeaser because, in Churchill's eyes, he "backed down".

    The British people were easily influenced by their "hero" Churchill and likewise, adopted the same disdain for Chamberlain.

    As to Britain's part in the starting of WW2, the war itself is always blamed on Hitler for invading Poland. But what historians fail to admit is that it was Churchill who was obsessed with wiping out Germany as shown when he stabbed Chamberlain in the back.

    Germany never wanted war, as evidenced in the many times Hitler tried to preserve peace. Edward Rydz Smigly of Poland was also obsessed with going to war with Germany but lacked the military power to do so.

    Britain took advantage of this and made false promises of military support to Poland just to get them to provoke an attack by Germany - the military support never arrived, but the resulting attack was the justification Britain needed to declare war on Germany.

    As to the claim that it was a "surprise attack", this is totally untrue.

    On the eve of the Second World War, the Polish government tried to buy as much armaments as it could and was asking for arms loans from Britain and France.

    As a result of that in the summer of 1939, Poland placed orders for 160 French Morane-Saulnier M.S.406 fighters, and for and 111 British airplanes (100 light bombers Fairey Battle, 10 Hurricanes, and 1 Spitfire).

    Although some of these planes had been shipped to Poland before 1 September 1939, none took part in combat. Shipments were interrupted due to the outbreak of war.

    The total amount of the loan from British government was also much smaller than asked for. Britain agreed to lend 8 million pounds, but Poland was asking for 60 million.

  • ?
    Lv 7
    4 weeks ago

    Largely because it allowed Hitler to appear to be a good leader. If the French had done anything to resist the remilitarization of the Rhineland, Hitler could not have survived politically. The Rhineland coup is often seen as the moment when Hitler could have been stopped with very little effort; the German forces involved in the move were small, compared to the much larger, and at the time more powerful, French military. The American journalist William L. Shirer wrote if the French had marched into the Rhineland,

        ... in March 1936 the two Western democracies, were given their last chance to halt, without the risk of a serious war, the rise of a militarized, aggressive, totalitarian Germany and, in fact – as we have seen Hitler admitting – bring the Nazi dictator and his regime tumbling down. They let the chance slip.

    A German officer assigned to the Bendlerstrasse during the crisis told H. R. Knickerbocker during the Spanish Civil War: "I can tell you that for five days and five nights not one of us closed an eye. We knew that if the French marched, we were done. We had no fortifications, and no army to match the French. If the French had even mobilized, we should have been compelled to retire." The general staff, the officer said, considered Hitler's action suicidal.  General Heinz Guderian, a German general interviewed by French officers after the Second World War, claimed: "If you French had intervened in the Rhineland in 1936 we should have been sunk and Hitler would have fallen. The fact that Britain and France did not intervene made Hitler believe that neither country would get in the way of Nazi foreign policy. That made him decide to quicken the pace of German preparations for war and the domination of Europe.

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  • gerald
    Lv 7
    4 weeks ago

    It didnt the corporate world of America pouring dollars into the German economy gave it the power to create the threat , 

  • 4 weeks ago

    It made Britain appear weak.

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