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Doesn't Jesus Christ write with an Incredible finger according to John 8:6?
7 Answers
- JimBrewskiLv 52 weeks ago
The Spurious Passage at John 7:53–8:11. These 12 verses have obviously been added to the original text of John’s Gospel. They are not found in the Sinaitic Manuscript or the Vatican Manuscript No. 1209, though they do appear in the fifth-century Codex Bezae and later Greek manuscripts. They are omitted, however, by most of the early versions. It is evident that they are not part of John’s Gospel. One group of Greek manuscripts places this passage at the end of John’s Gospel; another group puts it after Luke 21:38, supporting the conclusion that it is a spurious and uninspired text.
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- 2 weeks ago
Most ancient Greek manuscripts DO NOT contain John 7:53 until John 8:11, so this biblical text is spurious.
That this text is false, see the proof:
The Law said that had to kill the adulterous man and woman. The Pharisees knew this. Why didn't they bring the man to Jesus? Why did they only bring the woman? And why did Jesus keep silent in the face of this error practiced by the Pharisees? And if Jesus had no sin, why didn't he throw the 1st Stone? As you can see, THERE ARE MANY CONTRADICTIONS to the way of acting of the TRUE JESUS CHRIST of Bible. Think about it ! ( John 17 : 3)
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- JustinLv 72 weeks ago
Writing on the ground in Israel doesn't take a special finger. The soil is pretty sandy. He was probably just writing this:
עֲשֶׂרֶת הַדִּבְּרוֹת
In Hebrew it means, 'Ten commandments' and would have reinforced His point that none of them was sinless. In dramatic fashion, He probably wrote 'ten' first, (עֲשֶׂרֶת), then 'commandments' (הַדִּבְּרוֹת), just after He asked them who among them was sinless and worthy to cast the first stone.
Only the priests hung around to appear righteous, but no one actually cast any stones. The point was made.