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Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Social ScienceGender Studies · 1 day ago

Why is discrimination against white men in employment referred to as affirmative action in the U.S.?

17 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    11 hours ago

    EXACTLY as i predicted, Biden is now engaged in the greatest level of discrimination and racism ever see in this country.

    His kind discriminate against CHRISTIANS, JEWS, WHITES,MEN, STRAIGHTS, and

    CONSERVATIVES.

    This is in FACT a federal CRIME that requires the charge of treason yet Democrats have been allowed to get away with it for decades

  • garry
    Lv 6
    1 day ago

    because there white , any other color would say your racist !!

  • 1 day ago

    Throughout history those in power have never accepted that officially sanctioned discrimination is discrimination.  Officially sanctioned discrimination must be "right" and therefore cannot be "discrimination" which is understood to be an abhorrence.  Hence slavery, of blacks, could not be discrimination because they were not real people.  Denying the right to vote for women was not discrimination because they were only women.  I could go on but surely you see that we have been the same in the past and some things never change.

  • Anonymous
    1 day ago

    Affirmative Action is old. The modem left wants strict racial and gender quotas in everything. They call it Diversity, Inclusivity, Equity (DIE). But that’s basically quotas. A lot of Biden administration policies violate the civil rights Act. The left won’t admit this. But they also expect equality of outcome. Any inequality in outcome is due to racism and sexism. They will continue to discriminate against white men (and also white women) until the outcomes are equal. 

    If Whites are underrepresented in a field, that’s considered “progress”. But fields that are dominated by whites must be artificially diversified. 

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  • Anonymous
    1 day ago

    Not favoring white men is not discrimination against them. 

  • 1 day ago

    what kind of discrimination?  do you mean equal pay for work of equal value.  what are you talking about?  

  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 day ago

    "Why is discrimination against white men in employment referred to as affirmative action in the U.S.?"

    Because "systemic racism" is reserved by the establishment media to refer to social/personal racism that occurs against non-Whites people.  This is the cultural Marxist divide and conquer of common society that is being pushed by the elite onto the common classes (us), and is accepted by useful idiot leftists that think that legally discriimiating agent the White race is some kind of positive "social justice".

    Make no mistake about it ... "affirmative action" is systemic racism against White people.  It is state sanctioned legal discrimination against White people just because of their race.  That is the definition of systemic racism.

  • Anonymous
    1 day ago

    because it sounds better. 

  • Jeff S
    Lv 7
    1 day ago

    Sounds like you're playing victim.

  • 1 day ago

    Odd I've never felt discriminated against, must only be you snowflake.

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