litehaus22

I teach spanish and this has led me to an intense interest in the origin of language patterns. As I dig deeper and deeper into the language that I cherish most, my interest grows.

I've noticed that the verb "to be" is highly irregular in English, Spanish, German, French, Italian and Portuguese. I think, based on interviews, that it's the same in Russian and there are probably more. I've also learned, based again on interviews, that this does not happen in Mandarin based languages such as Vietnamese or Cambodian or even Japanese.

I recognize that this hunt may take me back to finding the mechanics behind the origins of Latin itself. Or even Greek. This will not be easy.

I'm hoping someone can give me a heads-up and point me in the right direction and give me a head start. Surely others have researched this question.

Thanks to all for any help as I seek the basis of this odd construction in many languages, including my own - english.

Rich

This is taken from a DirectTV description of a scheduled program that says "Las Vidas de tres personas cambian cuando se enfretan a las ffuerzas de la naturalrza." It's a description of the spanish movie Tempestad.

I understand what it means but I don't understand the use of the personal "a" in this case. Is it because "las ffuerzas de la naturalrza" are seen as acts of God and therefore need the personal "a?"

In my everyday talking of spanish I would have said "cuando se enfretan las ffuerzas de la naturalrza" without the use of the personal "a."

Can someone tell me why there is a personal "a" used here. I teach spanish on-line and I've never encountered this odd usage so I want to know.

Thanks for your help. I learn something new about spanish every day it seems.

Rich

learning spanish - write to litehaus22@yahoo.com for help

KWHY, channel 22 or KWHY-1 (HD) is transmitted all across the nation as a premier spanish only channel. Here is a disclaimer broadcast tonight about a "paid program."

Este es un programa pagado. Canal 22 no se hace responsable por la informacion, ni tampoco declaraciones hechas en el programa. Canal 22 no necesariamente respalda los productos, servicios o informacion en el presentados.

Shouldn't this last line say "Canal 22 no necesariamente respalda los productos, servicios o informaciones en los presentados" in order to be correct?

Thanks for your time.

Most all languages do not bother to differentiate between "used to" or even could and would. They just change it to could have or would have using the "helping" verbs (haber in spanish).

I'm totally fluent in spanish but I still don't know the history of the language enough to know why this second tense was invented. Does anyone know the spanish language origins enough to tell me how this tense came about?

I'm a teacher of spanish and I'd like to be able to tell (or explain) to my students why this strange idea has rational.

Rich

I'm pretty smart on spanish but consider the lyrics below.

Shouldn't "fuiste" be "era?" A man and a woman spend a considerable time together and then they they split-up. The man laments about how much he loves her even though, after years together, they've ended they're relationship.

Now I know that the preterite should be used when there is a definate statement (known) amount of time involved. Without that, the imperfect has to be used. Why is the preterite used in this case???

Is it because their relationship has come to an end (final - end of time) or does this fall into the category of "incomplete time" references that belongs in the imperfect tense.

I have a friend that spent 13 years in Mexico and told me as I was learning spanish 20 years ago that, once I've learned it, I'll find bad spanish all around me, in song, on the television and spoken. I've already found this to be trure. Is this another case?

I'm a spanish teacher and I still find this tense misunderstood by spanish speaking people all over the world. I just wish the academy in Spain would get rid of it like they did the future subjunctive - Thank God! Good riddence.

Even though this relationship has ended, there is no mention of time spent, so why is this in the preterite??

Here are the words - Notice that the songwriter uses "gritaba tu nombre" suggesting that this should all be in the imperfect tense.

Te Lloré by Conjunto Primavera

Fuiste el alma de mi vida

Mi tormenta y mi guarida

Mi pecado y mi rosario

Fuiste mas que un milagro

Fuiste el mundo mas perfecto

El regalo de mis sueños

La cancion de cada dia

Fuiste lo que yo pedia

Fuiste mi luna en el mar

No puedo entender lo que pasa.

Te lloré

Te lloré como un niño

Te lloré

Pero aun no te olvido

Te lloré

y gritaba tu nombre

Te lloré, te lloré

Pero nunca respondes

Te lloré, te lloré

Fuiste el mundo mas perfecto

El regalo de mis sueños

La cancion de cada dia

Fuiste lo que yo pedia

Fuiste mi luna en el mar

No puedo entender lo que pasa

Te lloré

Te lloré como un niño

Te lloré

Pero aun no te olvido

I asked this question last night but all I got were really lame answers. This takes some serious deep knowlege of how computers work.

I have a very fast computer with 256 Megabytes of memory running windows 98. I've stayed with 98 because I know where each and every file is located. That's important to me so I can manage windows myself. Please don't suggest that I solve this problem by upgrading. That would probably make things even worse.

My IE is starting very slow. It takes about a minute to come up. It starts out ok (the hard drive takes off but then stops) and there is a dead silence of about 45 to 60 seconds seemingly doing nothing. Nevertheless, given enough time explorer does come up and works fine after that.

I've been researching this on the net and following all advice. I've run fdisk followed by defrag. I've bought the top of the line registary cleaner (according to PC magazine) and run that (RegCure) and it found and fixed over 90 problems, most of which were "path" problems probably left-over from removed programs. I followed that with a registry defrag program to put it top condition. No improvement.

I've removed all off-line files including anything from browser stored files and have even erased all cookies. My start-up program file is empty.

I used a yahoo toolbar but removed it just in case IE was trying to load the icons used there because we know that they are stored off-system and have to be loaded in when IE starts.

I've also confirmed that there is no virus using Norton Anti-Virus (2008) and no adware stuff using a registered version of ad-aware.

So, if the registry is clean and defraged, there is no virus or adware on my computer and the hard drive has all files in-line and clicking on anything local to my computer starts instantly, plus all browser temporary files and all cookies have been removed, the computer and my network connection are not the problem. My DSL connection is good because once I have IE running, I can jump from page to page very fast. However, any call for another instance of IE such as a link causes the same minute delay launching IE again.

I'm at my wits end. I've checked Yahoo answers to this same question and I've already well covered all that ground. I've found out all I can using google. What do I do next? Take it to a computer store? Do they know more than we've discussed and I've already done here?

I want a real technical answer this time. Perhaps I have too little memory but I doubt it - BUT it could be why this happens. Remember, NO registry problems, NO hard disk problems, NO virus, NO adware, NO internet connection problems, NO toolbar download problems left, NO startup page left - I have to ask -

What's left to do?? What am I missing? This must be hardware somewhere I suspect. I have no problem with my internet connection tho - it's very fast. Once (a minute later) that IE starts, it works like a champ but getting it to start-up is seemingly impossible.

Does anyone really know the answer to this dilema? If you do and it works, I'll buy you the best meal that you ever wanted :)

Rich

I have a very fast computer with tons of memory running windows 98. I've stayed with 98 because I know where each and every file is located.

My IE is starting very slow and I mean it takes about a minute to come up. It starts out ok (the hard drive takes off but then stops) and spends a dead 45 to 60 seconds seemingly doing nothing. Nevertheless, given enough time explorer does come up and works fine after that.

I've been researching this on the net and following all advice. I've run fdisk followed by defrag. I've bought the top of the line registary cleaner (according to PC magazine) and run that (RegCure) and it found and fixed over 90 problems, most of which were "path" problems probably left-over from removed programs. I followed that with a registry defrag program to put it top condition. No improvement.

I've removed all off-line files including anything from browser stored files and have even cleaned-up the cookies. My start-up program file is empty.

So, if the registry is clean and defraged, the hard drive has all files in line and clicking on anything starts instantly, the computer and my network connection are not the problem. My DSL connection is good because once I have IE running, I can jump from page to page very fast. However, any call for another instance of IE such as a link causes the same minute delay restarting IE again.

I'm at my wits end. I've checked Yahoo answers to this same question and I've already well covered all that ground. I've found out all I can using google. What do I do next? Take it to a computer store? Do they know more than we've discussed and I've already done here?

Does anyone really know the answer to this dilema? If you do and it works, I'll buy you the best meal that you want :)

Rich

From the latest news this evening (Noticero Univisión) - "El dia de hoy nueva personas fueron assinated como cuervos de chido" News about the terrible drug killings in Mexico.

I undersatnd that DE & EL are always made to become "DEL" in spanish as in Del Mar (a town here in Southern Calif). But then what's up with this headline in "El Mexicano" a newspaper from Ensenada Mexico (13 de Abril 2008, edition No. 17,471) where the headline reads "Frustra su ejecución jefe de el Centenario."

I understand the story because I understand spanish but I wanna know something. Does a "special" place reverse that rule about never saying "de" plus "el?"

I'm guessing about a "sacred" place but is this true? Can I say "The manager of the park" and make it "El gerente de el parque" instead of "El gerente del parque?" This is what I wanna know.

It seems so from what the Mexican Newspaper did. Is this true? Did they do it right? Please let me know.

This comes from a Mexican prison order to visitors - no blusas ceñidas, no chamarras capuchón, no ropa interor sin barilla. As far as capuchón goes, the order is to not - "prendarse de vestir con capuchón."

Thanks to each and all of you that have answered but I'm still not getting it. I think the best answer came about using haber in the subjunctive tense but I don't quite understand it yet. I know the tenses of haber and know when to use it. But I'm still baffled about the spanish gramatical construction reasoning in this case.

Add to that BabbleFish gives me this and it seems possibly correct - "si tu había hecho lo qué te dije, habría podido tener 10 dólares ahora.

I'm missing something here and I think it's understing how to use the subjunctive tense of haber in this case. I want someone deep into spanish grammer not only to give me the "how to say it" answer (thank you for that but that's not my question) but to "unwind" it and go deep into spanish grammer and explain why this is said as it is and how it works grammaticly.

An example - If you had done what I said, you would have had 10 dollars by now.

I know how to say all but the "would have had" and need detailed help.

For example - If you had done what I said, you would have had 10 dollars by now. How do you say that in spanish and what is the gramatical basis of the spanish construction behind "would have had?" I'd like a good spanish grammer person to get on this if you would be so kind. Thanks.

I woke up a few days ago with my mouth and tounge swollen. I could hardly talk and was difficult to understand. I went to work anyway but a few hours later, I developed a fever and went home and slept most of the day. Slowly it has gone away (I still can feel some sensivity in the roof of my mouth).

Now, although only the roof of my mouth feels a bit painful, my whole mouth and lips are very sensitive to anything even mildy spicy. I like Jack cheese and had some but found that I couldn't even think of eating it. I ate a bite the other night and it burned my mouth terribly. Before, I enjoyed it all the time. I tried taking a shot of wisky at a party of a friend and found that it also burned my mouth and tounge. I had to spit it out it hurt so much.

I'm worried that this is a symptom of something else very serious going on in my body. Does anyone else know what can cause this?

Thanks - Rich

litehaus22@yahoo.com

Perhaps a vet will know the biochemical answer but I wonder most about what they really experience. Is catnip fun or cruel? Do they get "high" and what's that like. Does it scare them? Does anybody really know??