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  • Agree or disagree: Russians are Amalek?

    Russian Empire had been the most antisemitic place on Earth. Not a single period of Russian history did Jews experience tolerance. Jews were being persecuted, discriminated, raped, murdered, so forth. They were forced to live in Pale of Settlement and forbidden to move elsewhere. There were hundreds of pogroms spanned through hundred year period, sanctioned by Tsar and directed by secret police. Jews were the only people in Russian Empire to experience hatred and intolerance. Tsar Nicholas II final solution was to exterminate the Jewry of Russia.

    1 AnswerIsrael4 years ago
  • Why did Catherine the Great hated Jews so much but adored Islam?

    She was instrumental I in granting muslims equal citizen rights org the rest of Russian population. At the same time, she severely restricted the rights of Jews. She was an architect of Pale of Settlement.

    1 AnswerRussia4 years ago
  • Do you agree with this?

    According to authoritative Jewish law code:

    "With regards to one's maternal grandfather and grandmother however, there is no halachic obligation to honor them."

    (c) Yalkut Yosef: Laws of honoring father and mother with an ethical and halachic perspectives...

    2 AnswersHanukkah4 years ago
  • Women studying Talmud?

    Am I correctly understanding that Jewish women can study Talmud if they want to but just are not obligated to, and that there is no prohibition against women studying Talmud?

    8 AnswersIsrael4 years ago
  • Jews, how do you respond to this?

    These two articles argue that women are not human and that wife must be slave to her husband. They provide religious sources.

    http://daattorah.blogspot.com/2016/11/are-women-in...

    http://daattorah.blogspot.com/2016/12/womans-purpo...

    4 AnswersHanukkah4 years ago
  • Can husband prevent his wife from working under Jewish law?

    In Judaism, is wife required to always stay home, cook, and serve her children and husband in everything? Should husband be the sole breadwinner and, if so, is he allowed to prevent his wife from seeking job outside home? If not, can wife sue him? Does husband acquire his wife's property automatically or not?

    7 AnswersIsrael4 years ago
  • Why in Judaism fetus belongs to father (and not mother)?

    According to Jewish law, if a pregnant woman is struck and miscarries, the money compensation for fetus goes to her husband and not to her. Why is that?

    2 AnswersHanukkah4 years ago
  • help me find the female rap/r&b song from the 90s?

    All I remember is the music video which takes place at night at some mansion where three black/latina women were singing lyrics with erotic context. There was one scene with massage-like setting and the other one on the balcony.I think the lyrics went something like "do you want me boy?". They were also dressed in colored bathrobes with bikinis visible.

    1 AnswerLyrics4 years ago
  • If Islam allows married woman to be financially independent then how do you explain these?

    Muslims, you always brag about how your religion Islam gave women right to be economically independent and own/sell property without husband's interference. But in Islam woman isn't even allowed to leave her domain or do anything without husband's permission. So how is it possible for a Muslim woman to sell her own property or earn and spend money independently when her leaving her very domain to engage in such activities depends on her husband's

    8 AnswersReligion & Spirituality4 years ago
  • JEWS ONLY! In which cases is wife obligated to obey her husband under Jewish law?

    From what I read, there are only two cases where wife would be obligated to obey her husband under Jewish law: one is when her husband tells her not to seclude with any other man or of jealousy, and the other is when he prohibits her from selling property or onject that she owe or acquires. Correct me if I'm wrong?

    6 AnswersReligion & Spirituality5 years ago
  • Why should father be honored more than the mother?

    Excerpt from an article written by Rabbi Raphael Fuchs:

    http://www.jewishpress.com/judaism/parsha/must-one...

    "Rav Akiva Eiger is assuming that the logic of the halacha that both the son and his mother are obligated to honor his father and therefore he must honor his fathers wishes first, is a mathematical equation. Since they both have to honor him his request must take precedence. There is another approach to understanding this halacha. The fact that both the son and his mother are obligated to honor the child’s father could be an indication that the honor that a son has for his father is greater than that of the honor that he must have for his mother. It is not because by adhering his father’s request he is also fulfilling his mother’s obligation of honoring her husband. Rather it shows us that the honor for his father is greater."

    Comment on Yahoo! from Orthodox Jewish user Barry A:

    "The biblical commandment in Exodus, chapter 20, verse 12 says "Honor your father and your mother..."

    Since it mentions father first, the rules of biblical exegesis interpret this as that the father has priority when both parents are there, so you bring your father the water first (or perform the task that he asks first, then you take care of your mother). There are plenty of interpretations as to why, but I am not going to provide a full lecture. "

    3 AnswersIsrael5 years ago
  • If Islam allows married woman to be financially independent then how do you explain these?

    Muslims, you always brag about how your religion Islam gave women right to be economically independent and own/sell property without husband's interference. But in Islam woman isn't even allowed to leave her domain or do anything without husband's permission. So how is it possible for a Muslim woman to sell her own property or earn and spend money independently when her leaving her very domain to engage in such activities depends on her husband's

    3 AnswersGender Studies5 years ago
  • If Islam allows married women to be financially independent then how do you explain this?

    Muslims, you always brag about how your religion Islam gave women right to be economically independent and own/sell property without husband's interference. But in Islam woman isn't even allowed to leave her domain or do anything without husband's permission. So how is it possible for a Muslim woman to sell her own property or earn and spend money independently when her leaving her very domain to engage in such activities depends on her husband

    6 AnswersRamadan5 years ago
  • Any Orthodox Jews here? Help me resolve this question?

    Shulhan Aruch Yoreh Deah 240:14 states that if both parents ask for water, one must assist father first. Does this rule only apply to water or any other chore that wife is obligated to do for her husband (as Pitchei Teshiva 240:9 states) or everything else as well?

    3 AnswersIsrael5 years ago
  • Does Orthodox Judaism command wife to be obedient?

    Question directed at Orthodox Jews only: is there a requirement in Halacha (Jewish religious law) that wife must be subordinate to her husband and obey him in everything? I know Genesis says Eve is punished that Adam shall rule over her. Do Jews take this narrative seriously and use this as law as Christians do, or do they have I different interpretations of it?

    Thanks in advance.

    4 AnswersIsrael5 years ago
  • Muslims, why you condemn Jewish menstruatuon laws when your laws are worse?

    According to your religion, men's truant woman cannot engage in any religious rites: she cannot pray, fast, enter the mosque or touch the Quran. None of these is forbidden in Judaism. Menstruant women in Judaism can engage in ritual activities like pray, fast, or entering synagogues and touching Torahs. It's true that husbands aren't supposed to have intimate contact with his wife but that's to prevent arousal of sexual thoughts in a man, not because women are "unclean".

    9 AnswersReligion & Spirituality5 years ago
  • Agree or disagree: only Shulchan Aruch should be the valid source of Jewish law and practice?

    Considering that Shulchan Aruch was originally written with intention of becoming the final code of Jewish law and was universally accepted as authoritative among all Jews, would you agree that it should be the only valid source of Jewish law in post-talmudical literature? The reason I'm asking is because there are some Orthodox Jews out there who believe that wife must obey her husband and cite Mishna Torah in which Maimonides wrote that wife must revere her husband like a king. Shulchan Aruch doesn't teach this from what I know. Neither does any other Jewish text. But this is a favorite pick for misogynists to justify their repressive actions towards wife. This is just one example.

    Another example is the law of honoring parents. Shulchan Aruch teaches (YD 240) that if father and mother requested son to bring water at the same time, he should bring water to father first. Since wife is also obligated to serve her husband a water, son should serve father first. But later rabbis decided to extend this law to all situations. One rabbi, R. Akiva Eiger, even ruled that father can prevent his son from saying kaddish for his deceased mother because "father's honor comes first". But Shulchan Aruch mentions specifically water.

    There are other examples. My point is that there are some rabbis out there who use their power of authority to abuse others, while there are also regular Jews who like to use their aged-old rulings to justify their bigotry

    2 AnswersIsrael5 years ago
  • Agree or disagree: Shulchan Aruch should be the only valid source of Jewish law?

    Considering that Shulchan Aruch was originally written with intention of becoming the final code of Jewish law and was universally accepted as authoritative among all Jews, would you agree that it should be the only valid source of Jewish law in post-talmudical literature? The reason I'm asking is because there are some Orthodox Jews out there who believe that wife must obey her husband and cite Mishna Torah in which Maimonides wrote that wife must revere her husband like a king. Shulchan Aruch doesn't teach this from what I know. Neither does any other Jewish text. But this is a favorite pick for misogynists to justify their repressive actions towards wife. This is just one example.

    Another example is the law of honoring parents. Shulchan Aruch teaches (YD 240) that if father and mother requested son to bring water at the same time, he should bring water to father first. Since wife is also obligated to serve her husband a water, son should serve father first. But later rabbis decided to extend this law to all situations. One rabbi, R. Akiva Eiger, even ruled that father can prevent his son from saying kaddish for his deceased mother because "father's honor comes first". But Shulchan Aruch mentions specifically water.

    There are other examples. My point is that there are some rabbis out there who use their power of authority to abuse others, while there are also regular Jews who like to use their aged-old rulings to justify their bigotry,

    3 AnswersIsrael5 years ago