Question on faburden in music?
I'm studying for an exam for a recap on Music History as a Grad student. Since I haven't been in school since 1922 (exaggerating) I'm a little rusty but alot is coming back to me as I've been studying. However, I don't want to be misinformed with what I have.
Should we consider polyphony in the latin texts in English liturgy pretty much faburden in the 15th century? I'm not seeing much of a difference. If I am incorrect, please inform me. And by the way, I am looking at the Renaissance period.
Any historian willing to help an unsure opera singer would be appreciated. LOL!