I am talking about home improvements in a property that eventually becomes the property of one party (from her father, the owner during the improvements) due to a later official legal agreement after they split up.
MKultra
Sorry I was not clear and I missed out a lot of info as I was after a simple answer of whether money spent by a couple on a rented home can then be later claimed back by one of the couple when they gain possession of the home. To hopefully clarify, when the money was spent, the property did not belong to either party, it was effectively rented (from party A's father). Some time (years) after they split up the property became owned by party A due to an agreement of regular payments of a certain sum to her father (still ongoing) .
Party B claims to have invested an amount of money in the property BEFORE it belonged to party A, while they were together as a couple. He now claims he is owed this money as a debt.
To give some background. Party B was the subject of an injunction after violent domestic abuse against Party A and somewhat of an oddball. He served a bankruptcy notice out of the blue on party A which was effectively laughed out of court for so many reasons (in fact it gave the judge a headache). He now has a small claim court against party A for the exact same thing!
wendy c
say... wife invests 30 grand of her money into "his" house, then they divorce. Yes, her lawyer could make a request that her funds be considered as her "equity" to be repaid, if he gets the house in said divorce. I've heard of that.
Avery
Your a piece of **** go back to Israel you terrorist