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Why do people say be proved???
It's be proven!! It's a past participle!!
Or have you never *saw* it? Or have you never *gave* it any thought? See how horrible those sound? It's the same way for proven!!!
Yep - I realize both are given as "acceptable" past participles - and that "proved" might even be older and that proven likely came about through influence of words like cloven.... but still "be proved" sounds like fingernails on the chalkboard.
Also --- bluntly calling me wrong is certainly not going to get you a best answer vote. Next --- how can you argue that use of the asteric as an emphatic mark is *grammatically* incorrect? Especially when it is common practice in a writing system that does not allow for bold, italics, underlining.... etc.
5 Answers
- Anonymous1 decade agoFavorite Answer
As either form is acceptable, it just comes down to a matter of personal preference. No need to get whipped up about it.
- 1 decade ago
Proved and proven are both acceptable.
(By the way, you're examples with "saw" and "gave" aren't really applicable in this situation. They would only be analogous if people were using the word "prove" in the past tense. e.g. The attorney never prove his case.)
EDIT: You know, I actually agree that proven sounds better. It just didn't sound like you knew that "proved" was technically correct.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Because either one can be used properly, depending on the context of the sentence.
A better question is why people think that the use of astericks (*) as bracketing devices for the purpose of adding emphasis is acceptable and grammatically correct when it is, in fact, neither.
- wendy_the_pyroLv 41 decade ago
I've heard more people say "I never saw it," than "be proved," but either way it makes me want to scream with discomfort.
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- Anonymous1 decade ago
Actually, "proved" is an acceptable alternate form of "proven." Check your dictionary.
The other two examples you give ("have saw," "have gave") are incorrect.
My personal pet peeve is "have drank."