why did the industrial revolution developed first in England ?

to answer 1 - no, the empire came after the Indus Rev and to a large extent because of it.

to answer 3 - no again, you are putting the cart before the horse.

According to a very good answer given here recently about the indus rev in Europe, there were two precious differences between Britain and other countries at that time that made the indus rev possible. One is that Britain was a (relatively, for the time) large free trade area, so a product developed in one place, say Ironbridge or Manchester, could be sold all over the country in a free market. The other is that we had had the agricultural revolution during the previous century and could therefore grow the food to feed the rising number of town dwellers with fewer farm workers.

You could say that back of that was good karma, for example that our landlords had long held some responsbility for and caring about the welfare of the poor and tried to help them through famines, something noticably not true of Iberian or Russian landlords.

Because they had the natural resources and the man power for it....the factories revolutionized many industries especially textiles....the factories attracted poor people from rural england to the cities in search of work....nd they had alot of untouched natural resources....

because they had a huge empire with access to a lot of resources

Because the Indians didn't think of it.

It had to happen first somewhere.