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What is your understanding of John's statement?

“Those who have been born of God do not sin, because God's seed abides in them; they cannot sin, because they have been born of God.”

Particularly focus on the phrases "do not sin" and "they cannot sin".

I don't mind opinion, but prefer scriptural support please.

Update:

No one has yet explained how John could say here, "they do not sin" and "they cannot sin"---what is not clear about "do not" and "cannot"

Update 2:

"do not" and "cannot" means 0, none, nada

no major, no minor, NONE

I need someone to explain why there would no longer be any sin

Update 3:

The verse I reference is 1John 3:9 if anyone was interested. Also note the wording of 1John 3:6, "No one who abides in him sins; no one who sins has either seen him or known him."

Update 4:

Servant A---John did not claim they were the words of Jesus, although Jesus could have spoken these words and they might not have been recorded since John in his gospel points out in John 21:25, "But there are also many other things that Jesus did; if every one of them were written down, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written."

5 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    God, the Creator made man in His likeness, spiritual beings. And

    behold it was good.

    God. which we do not understand very well, we do know is Eternal, Perfect, Changeless, All Wise, and invulnerable. Spiritual man is

    similar being in His Image.

    But man got interested in earth and its creatures and decided to

    separate from God,- something man could not do - except in a dream.

    It is impossible to separate from God [to override His Creation]

    Since God is invulnerable, nothing man can can possibly do can

    in any way harm or hurt God. It is impossible to sin against God.

    Source(s): The Myth Of God Incarnate by six theologans
  • 1 decade ago

    I am a disciple of Jesus, and as his disciple, I study the words Jesus spoke daily, therefore I recognize His words, when I hear them and the words you speak;

    "Those who have been born of God do not sin, because God's seed abides in them; they cannot sin, because they have been born of God.”

    Where never words spoken by Jesus, and if Jesus never spoke them, it is impossible for John to claimed they were the words of Jesus.

    Therefore I ask of you in what book, chapter and verse do you claim these words where spoken?

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    I have no scriptural support to offer but i am familiar with the Bible. My guess is that one who is born of God is led by his spirit (greater then one who isn't), and it dominates that ones mental inclinations, leading them away from sin. Maybe even helping them to see more clearly the negative effects that sin has on them, and those around them.

    Observe premarital sex, and the negative effects it has on those who participate in it. The sin at first may not seem bad but observe those who practice it over time. God warns us to avoid fornication for a reason! Science is only slightly beginning to realize today how negative its effects can truly be. The Bibles been admonishing us to avoid it for awhile. Divorce is a similar case scenario. It originated with the sons of Cain.

    8 He who carries on sin originates with the Devil, because the Devil has been sinning from [the] beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was made manifest, namely, to break up the works of the Devil.

    9 Everyone who has been born from God does not carry on sin, because His [reproductive] seed remains in such one, and he cannot practice sin, because he has been born from God. 10 The children of God and the children of the Devil are evident by this fact: Everyone who does not carry on righteousness does not originate with God, neither does he who does not love his brother. 11 For this is the message which YOU have heard from [the] beginning, that we should have love for one another; 12 not like Cain, who originated with the wicked one and slaughtered his brother. And for the sake of what did he slaughter him? Because his own works were wicked, but those of his brother [were] righteous.

    Source(s): Personal Observations
  • Esther
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Sure. We know that as believers, we will still sin, because the bible goes on to tell us so. "Little children, we desire that you do not sin, but if you do, you have an advocate in Jesus Christ".

    So we can't infer that John was saying we'll never sin again. It means, as Romans teaches, we are no longer slaves to sin and certainly we are no longer going to die in our sins, as Jesus has paid the price for all our sins; past, present, future.

    Regards,

    Source(s): 1st John 2:1 and Romans 6:18
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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Those who are Born of God's H.E.AVENly Kingdom no Longer Commit (MAJOR) Sins !

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