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David G asked in Arts & HumanitiesPhilosophy · 1 decade ago

Which modern philosopher said...?

(in a qualification of the Golden Rule) that the only law one was morally permitted to advocate was one under which one would be willingly agnostic a priori as to one's eventual societal place under the application of the law? In other words, if you're not willing to exempt yourself from the provisions of a a law, do not support it.

Update:

Arrgh, yes, I meant 'include oneself in the provisons of', not 'exempt one from'. Sorry

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    That's in fact the opposite of the meaning. He means that the only law you can morally support is one that you have no prior knowledge of how it will effect you. I.E., if you create a law that demands a death penalty for murder, but you know that you are exempt from said law, and you continue to murder people, then morally you cannot support said law. Perhaps you meant to say "not willing to INCLUDE yourself"

  • 1 decade ago

    Alfred E Newman

    Source(s): MAD Magazine, Volume 1 Issue 1
  • 1 decade ago

    Sounds like the nonsense one would find in John Rawls.

  • 1 decade ago

    i cant remember if there was one modern philosopher who stated that... are you sure about the statement? Though i remember someone who seems to state an opposite of it...

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  • 1 decade ago

    emmanuel Kant..

    The Categorical Imperative.

  • 1 decade ago

    Are you asking the question to find the answer, or to find if someone else, along with yourself, knows the answer?

  • 1 decade ago

    I don't know. Sorry.

  • 1 decade ago

    YOUR MAKING A STATEMENT.

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