So what could it really mean?

Question

The Greeks made no use of articles within their language. When you see an article interjected into the English translations of the Scriptures it is a scribal addition. The Greeks had other methods to establish relationships of things within their writings. Order and Letter usage were two such ways. Therefore what does Acts 1:5 Really mean with the removal of the scribal addition of "the" before Holy Spirit ? Acts1"5 "For John baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with (the) Holy Ghost not many days hence". The order of the words might have been changed to lead to this translation(?)

Toni 1953 · Accepted Answer

You have made an excellent point. In following this line of reasoning, have you ever wondered why the translators of this Bible version did not put the article 'a' in John 1:1 like some other Bible translators have done? 
There are some Bible translations that do translate Acts 1:5 this way: "because John, indeed, baptized with water, but YOU will be baptized in holy spirit not many days after this.” NWT.
But there are other scriptures where 'the' is used in front of holy spirit. Matthew 28:19.

? · Answer

Thew bible does italizie words that were put in there at the privilege of the translators. I always read it without those words and often it clears things up.

Anonymous · Answer

Scribes put a lot of errors into scripture. Some intentionally, some unintentionally. The Bible is still a work of humans codifying myths.

Irreverend · Answer

Article or not, it was never divine in origin, is not divine now and will never become divine. We can only interpret it as we would any other piece of human writing, like Shakespeare's.

Anonymous · Answer

fcuk knows.

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So what could it really mean?

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