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Please logically explain this ? It makes no sense.?

Exodus 13;19 and Joshua 24;32 both report that Moses brought Joseph,s bones up out of Egypt for burial as Joseph prophesied in Genesis 50;24-5. Yet in Genesis 50;26 Joseph was reported to have been embalmed (Mummified) and was placed in a coffin (sarcophagus)in Egypt. This as Egyptian custom would dictate for a Visor. If Joseph would have been a mummy then how could he have been bone only? Does this show that the translator did not understand exactly what process was performed on Joseph's body? That this was an addition to scriptures? That indeed the flesh would remain on the bone in a mummified state for centuries. Or did Moses actually hack the flesh off of Joseph's bones, break the bones apart and carry these up out of Egypt. Or is this another example of God's miracles usurping the laws of physics and science and voiding the embalming and preparing these bones for Moses?

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    The people who wrote such things talked to burning bushes for God's sake.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    1) If Joseph would have been a mummy then how could he have been bone only?

    Neither passage reads, "only". "Bones" may be a Hebrew euphemism (I do not know if it is) for "remains". Even if it is not, though, the simple, logical explanation is that Joseph's bones were in the embalmed mummy.

    2) Does this show that the translator did not understand exactly what process was performed on Joseph's body?

    Logically, no.

    3) That this was an addition to scriptures?

    Logically, no.

    4) That indeed the flesh would remain on the bone in a mummified state for centuries.

    Not necessarily. It depends on how well preserved the mummy was. Remember, also, that it was about 400 years from the time of Joseph's embalming until the time of Moses. A lot can happen to a mummy in that time.

    5) Or did Moses actually hack the flesh off of Joseph's bones, break the bones apart and carry these up out of Egypt.

    Seems extremely unlikely.

    6) Or is this another example of God's miracles usurping the laws of physics and science and voiding the embalming and preparing these bones for Moses?

    No.

    Occam's razor. The simplest solution is usually the correct one. Most likely, the bones mentioned were still preserved in the mummified body of Joseph. Slightly less likely, poor care of the mummy had led to the loss of the flesh and all that remained were the bones.

    Jim, http://www.bibleselector.com/

  • 1 decade ago

    I think it would be very easy to carry mummified remains, and it is all the more likely that ALL of the bones were present and accounted for. If he had not been mummified, chances are some bones would have gotten lost.

    So, I think bringing his bones up was a way of saying "his dead body"

    Just like when I say "move your a s s" I don't mean move your butt and leave the rest of your body behind, right? maybe someday in the future, someone will puzzle over the "move your a s s" phrase, and ask if someone did not understand the nature of the butt being actually attached to the rest of the body.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    "Embalming", at least as far as the Jews were concerned, consisted of preparing the body with spices. It's what we would consider perfume these days. They allowed the body to decay for some time until only bones were left and then they were interred. It's the same thing the women wanted to do with Jesus's body when they went to his tomb.

    Keep in mind that the King James bible was translated in the 16th century. The modern notion of embalming didn't exist then.

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  • The Hebrew word that was translated as "bones" (etsem) does come from a root word that means "to be strong (like a bone)", but it may or may not actually be referring to Joseph's literal bones. There are several layers to understanding Hebrew. Etsem can also be translated as "body" or figuratively as "substance." Either of the latter two would be compatible with mummification.

    Most likely it's a mistranslation.

  • 1 decade ago

    Terminology...The scripture is simply telling that Joesph was taken from egypt to be buried with His fathers....They could have said Moses brought up the flesh and bone of Joesph then that would cause one to think Joesph was still alive... The main point is to show that the prophecy of Gen. 50 had come to pass....

  • What was so hard in bringing the mummified body out of Egypt?

    "Bones" is a metaphor simply meaning the Body, mummified or not.

  • 1 decade ago

    They just said bones (as a dead body) rather than they carried a mummified or embalmed body.

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    The Trinity isn't 3 gods, and that is the most important. God is an all-effective god that created each thing, the total universe. hence, can something be no longer attainable for Him? for sure no longer. The Holy Spirit is the spirit of God, in essence it truly is God's "ability" it particularly is used to empower believers and carry out God's will in the global. ok so a options? Jesus became God's Spirit incarnated as a human guy. This became so as that God ought to grant a sacrifice for sin, a human sacrifice that ought to forgive each body, one sacrifice for all. It became also so as that mankind had something tangable to narrate to, really than in basic terms "seeing" God in invisible spirit form we've God in a tangable human form that walked the earth with different adult adult males, performing miracles and sacrificing Himself on the pass for us. In Revelation we see Jesus became the first and the most suitable, and in 2 Peter a million:a million “to those who have gained like effective faith with us by using the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ”. God not in any respect unexpectedly replaced salvation. Salvation became continually going to be with Jesus, hence why the OT prophecies about Jesus and the salvation He attained on the pass. there is not any "Moses and then unexpectedly substitute", Jesus became continually going to come back, and the OT factors to that reality, particularly the prophets. There are a minimum of 40 4 Mesianic prophecies interior the OT that were fulfiled by using Jesus, prophecies which includes being born of a lady (Gen 3:15), born in Bethlehem (Micah 5:2), born of a virgin (Isaiah 7:14), from the line of Abraham (Gen 12:3, Gen 22:18), a descendant of Issac (Gen 17:19, Gen 21:12), from tribe of Judah (Gen 40 9:10), and the record is going on. i'm continually surprised at those that declare they settle for there's a God, yet no longer that He ought to educate up in 3 diverse varieties. both God is God, or he's not. If God is God then no longer something isn't attainable, such as the manifestation of three diverse varieties: God the daddy, the regular individual of the Trinity. God the Son, the human manifestation of the Spirit. God the Holy Spirit, the religious ability that God makes use of to fill believers and carry out His will. bear in mind in Scripture that Jesus had to ascend to heaven before the Holy Spirit ought to descend to earth. So, in essence there is in basic terms one God, who manifests in a unmarried of three varieties.

  • Adam B
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    A child could reason on this one. You obviously don't have the reasoning capabilities of a child. The second poster nailed it straight away.

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