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.0. asked in Society & CultureHolidaysRamadan · 1 decade ago

Please, explain this Quran verse to me?

It's basically Allah talking to Muhammad and giving him special authorities regarding women and marriage.

Quran

[33:50] “Oh prophet! we allowed for you:

- your wives, to whom you have paid their dues

- and what you own of female slaves, as granted to you by Allah

- and the daughters of your father's brothers

-and the daughters of your father's sisters

- and the daughters of your mother's brothers

- the daughters of your mother's sisters

who have emigrated with you

- and a believing woman who gives herself to the prophet (for free) if the prophet wants to marry her specially for you (Muhammad) than the other believers.

We have already pointed out their rights in their wives and female slaves. This is to spare you any embarrassment. Allah is Forgiver, Most Merciful.”

My question is: How does this verse sound holy? and what is linguistically miraculous about it?

what is spiritual about it?

Update:

Popeye,

well, you must have read this verse while adding spirituality from your self in to it, please explain its holy meanings?

What's holy to you about Muhammad performing sexual intercourse with his female slaves or wives?

Update 2:

!I love Ankaboot!, the original Arabic text is very close to the English translation I provided.

same, no Arab can explain the spirituality of that verse.

Update 3:

Rosy Pearl, well, it looks like all kinds of women are being allowed for him:

Any women he marries for money

Any women who gives herself to him for free

any of his female cousins

and last but not least, he can have sex with his female slaves

still, no holiness can be found ... Arabic English you name it

Update 4:

Mr. Ruchjat K, thank you for explaining the verse. You are right. It is so.

The verse is very obvious btw.

but my question was: where is the holiness and spirituality in it?

Don't Muslims say that every verse in Quran is a miracle? then where is it?

forget the linguistic miracle, cuz no one can find it, not even in Arabic.

But, let's talk spiritually. What is so spiritually noble and holy about the verse above?

Update 5:

Mr. Ruchjat K, thank you for explaining the verse. You are right. It is so.

The verse is very obvious btw.

but my question was: where is the holiness and spirituality in it?

Don't Muslims say that every verse in Quran is a miracle? then where is it?

forget the linguistic miracle, cuz no one can find it, not even in Arabic.

But, let's talk spiritually. What is so spiritually noble and holy about the verse above?

Update 6:

Mr. Ruchjat K, thank you for explaining the verse. You are right. It is so.

The verse is very obvious btw.

but my question was: where is the holiness and spirituality in it?

Don't Muslims say that every verse in Quran is a miracle? then where is it?

forget the linguistic miracle, cuz no one can find it, not even in Arabic.

But, let's talk spiritually. What is so spiritually noble and holy about the verse above?

8 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    The basic rules of criticism goes something like this:

    Always bring your best game

    Do serious research before opening your mouth

    Keep your self informed of the development as new arguments are added all the time

    When a position stands refuted do not revisit. (This one especially pertains to you)

    When you don't know the answer, do not ask the question

    Be a good sport when it becomes clear that the opponents just kicked your a**

    Never ever play out of your league

    I hope I was some help - Thanks

  • Ray~
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    You guys are getting more creative each day by turning the verses around to mean what you want it to mean, then saying "so it basically means this". That wasnt even the full verse...

    Nowhere does it say anything about owning women slaves, it says "And those whom thy right hand possesses out of the captives of war whom Allah has assigned thee" but you didnt include this part. At his time many men were dying in war and left women as widows and unable to support themselves for survival. The reason why Muhammad saws had so many wives (Allah gave him the exception of more than 4) was because he married these widowed women to support and provide for them. Plus those women who were held as captives (as in prisoners during war, not his personal slaves!). It also mentions that he could only marry Muslim women and his female cousins that performed the Hijrat with him, unlike for what applies to other men who can marry any female cousin and even non-Muslim women (People of the book - Jew, Christian, or Muslim). Obviously if a woman was to marry the Prophet and teach the holy message she needs to be a Muslim.

    The spirituality of the verse is believing that Allah provides a path for us in marraige that is made easy to follow with His guidance. Everything is about obeying Allah and His intellegence with trust. Marraige isnt just an important relationship for our physical life, but our moral and spiritual life as well. Linguistic miracle - like we always say, each word is from Allah. And He is indeed the Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful...if that is not holy enough then i dont know what is.

    Hope that helped~

    Source(s): PS - It only makes sense to ask questions if you're willing to reflect on people's answers, so reflect.
  • 1 decade ago

    Tell me what you think of this explanation:

    http://alislam.org/quran/tafseer/?page=860%C2%AEio...

    Also, the connotation in the verse is of marriage so Allah tells Muhammad (saw) that slaves are allowed for marriage. Note that it first says wives to whom dues or dowries are paid; w/ slaves it is not mentioned b/c their freedom is their dowry as is their increase in status in society. If you do read the above link commentary on the verse, you'll have read about Maria (ra) who was a slave given to Muhammad (saw); he didn't keep her as a sex slave though but as per this verse, he married her.

    It was a strong blow to slavery b/c he was the head of a religion and head of a state which in secular society means he has high status and should only marry people of high status but that does not matter in Islam and him marrying a slave makes a brilliant example to follow contrary to the previous tradition of sexual slavery. Having just wrote this, I also just realized that considering his status, him marrying the women he did was illogical from a secular point of view and in that lies the spirituality of the verse.

    The verse basically tells him to marry humbly and w/o prejudice and of course morally too so that is why after the two types of people mentioned for marriage, the people allowed for marriage are also listed. It describes the duties of our founder and the examples he set.

    I hope this addresses your question.

  • 1 decade ago

    1. Linguistic miracles are to be sought in the language of the source, not by resorting to a translation.

    2. It is not targetted specifically at the prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him and his posterity), but it is communicating societal norms of marriage through him.

    3. It outlines the basic theme of Islam: there are so many things permissible for your convenience, so why go outside the limits and chase after those forbidden.

    4. It establishes grounds for permissible and forbidden and then reminds us of the duties and rights.

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  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    I'm not a Muslim, but check out Matthew 15:26 and Mark 7:27 where Jesus does the same. Just for fun, look up Matthew 7:1

  • 1 decade ago

    Yes surah 33 Al Ahzab verse 50 is the talking of Allah swt to Muhammad pbuh as soecial authorities regarding women and marriage and who are mahrams and no mahrams who can be married.This verse talk about halal and haram women to be married by the rasool. and the obligation to give dowry.

    Allah informs us that this authorities are given only to the rasool and it is not given to his followers.

    Rasool will free the slaves by marrying them.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Muslim understands better with faith than those who read it without a faith. That is how you can't feel some holiness. It will always begin with faith to understand. When you use malicious intend to interpret a sentence you can only get what you want it to be meant.

    Do we have to explain this over and over again? Every words could be translated according to your needs. So now you are asking a question about the difference view point.

    Take some psychological classes and you will not waste your time asking stupid question. I am preaching you about how to approach an issue with an open mind. Open mind see wider view instead from your one single angle of view. We do not owe you any explanation, do you understands this? And you have no authority to question our. See the stupidity?

    Source(s): "Mystical Pond"
  • 1 decade ago

    Well you will only really appreciate the linguistic technique of the Curran in it's Arabic form as a translation doesn't capture the literary Essenes of it. It's a work of art in the Arabic language.

    EDIT: do you understand Arabic thoroughly?

    Like lets take shakespear for example, his work is seen in the English world to be a work of literary art. Now translate those poems into Spanish, you'llll get a loosely translated poem...not as appreciated as in it's original language.

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