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What if, in the Bible?

Someone had mistakenly added an angry letter from a Zabiru to an Egyptian stone merchant or slave trader, or wheat inspector, and it got integrated into the holy texts and reproduced ad infinitum as the Word of God? Wouldn't it be a bit silly to preserve this fallacy unwittingly? How could anyone tell?

Update:

Dear NoOneHome2day'sActivity.

I read the whole thing, and a lot of it has no "spiritual" content whatsoever. Mainly history revamped as epic God-to-Man interaction.

Update 2:

Dear Anthony D

I was thinking rather in terms of the OT...

16 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    It is interesting to read your question, since we have excellent evidence that events similar to what you describe have happened, and we can in fact tell that it happened, owing to the large number of manuscripts.

    We have not had letters from angry stonemasons, so far as I know, but we have some interesting scribal notes which, in time, have indeed become part of holy writ.

    We can usually compare manuscripts and see that the error pops up on manuscripts that passed through a certain provenance, and they seemed to get the error in a particular time period -- although from our point of view, the time period might amount to limiting the error to a two or three-century window.

    We get errors when the writer just can't believe what he's writing, and so he tries to fix it, or he omits it or he adds some qualifications to it.

    Source(s): Bart Ehrman Google him. He's done some good articles on the web. Also: He has several books out that are around this general theme, and also the question of why God allows suffering. (In Ehrman's opinion, God loses, but everyone can read and judge for themselves.)
  • 1 decade ago

    There are many written words in the Old Testament especially on the accounts of Moses that may show negative thoughts about God. But if you will really go deeper into understanding that the Book was primarily written by the Jews for lives and tradition of the Jews. At that time it was also possible that writers who sees things, will just have to write what they see or hear without using their own judgment as to whether it is right or not, whether it has spiritual content or none.

  • ?
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    When you read the books of the Bible you can sense first of all that each of the books were written by different people - they have different styles and flow. But another thing you can sense is the divine inspiration in the words. It's not tangible (unless you examine the texts in Hebrew and Greek, and then it's very apparent and tangible!) but it's something that you can feel. Even the letter from Paul to Philemon, which on the surface just seems an ordinary communication, has the marks of God's word in it.

    Over the centuries people have tried to insert certain texts into the Bible claiming their in-errancy and divinity, but one glance at the texts and it becomes apparent that it is not the inspired word of God. I would think that such a letter would be dismissed for the mundane nature of it.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    When the New Testament canon was gradually coming together during the second century, one of the tests for inclusion was whether it was thought to have been written by one of the apostles, or by a close associate of theirs. A second, rather obvious, test was whether or not it had anything to say about Jesus or God. A letter from Paul complaining about his butcher wouldn't have got in, no matter who it had been written by.

    Your mythical epistle would have failed on both counts.

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  • LP S
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago

    There are two other set of texts written at different, far away, locations by different peoples and are identical. These texts are called the Masorah and are like foot notes to the original manuscripts from where we get our modern bible. The Masorah will not allow any misinterpretation or pollution of the scriptures.

    It is our modern translations that get polluted or misguided.

  • 1 decade ago

    Ignore the fundamentalists.

    Your question was a fine one.

    Anyone who says 'God paved the way of the words' or some mystical **** like that is merely rationalizing an obvious fact and that is, that they do not know the answer to you question and that is entirely possible that what you said could have happened.

    They posses no power over such actions

  • 1 decade ago

    The Bible is God's perfect and infallible word. What it contains has stood the test of time.

  • 1 decade ago

    Face reality. If I were like you I could think what if she never asked this question? Then I would not to of had to rebuke her. God's word is true. What is in God's word has a purpose. Dreamers think about what if this was in the Bible (when it wasn't) only to justify their sin. So repent and get right with God.

  • 1 decade ago

    in truth i suppose no one could but then again the church did try their best during the middle ages to take out anything from the bible that didn't suit them so hopefully that cleared up a lot of problems

  • 1 decade ago

    The scriptures have a central theme, and there is agreement between one scripture and another. Your analogy would not fit into this theme.

    grace2u

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