How come Democrats have held larger majorities in the House than Republicans do today?

This was the biggest gain by either party since 1948. According to exit pols, the reason for the vote was The Health Care Law, the way it was passed, the way it's being presented, and the latent effects(higher cost of premiums) for those who already had insurance. We find out that seniors are having their services diminished, that those on Medicaid will have their choices made for them, that not all of us will be able to keep our present coverage, that Congress exempted themselves from the rules(again), and that it does little to actually improve care for many. That might be considered a mandate since it seems to be the issue which drove the change.

No, 3% isn't a landslide. Obama vs McCain became a landslide with the aid of fact Obama had much extra electoral college votes, and he gained only approximately each swing state. it quite is a protracted thank you to circulate earlier 2012. do not count quantity your chickens yet.

Because they have. I don't understand how this is a legitimate question.

What you are missing maybe is that it isn't common for there to be this large of a swing. Especially when you count the state elections.

American said very loud and very clear "Back the hell off Socialists!!"

Because a lot of people voted for Democrats. Seems obvious, but maybe I'm not understanding your question.

likes how people are saying you lost get over it when in 06 and 08 they were on this site crying like hell

Because more Dems were elected than Republicans in those election cyeles.

But you knew that already.

And Reagan got re-elected in ANOTHER landslide in 1984. Your point is?

Whatever makes you feel better.

Feel better now? Is it marginalized in your head now? lol

YOU LOST

Get over it already.