Doesn't the Qua ran says a prophet cannot lie and also that Jesus was a prophet ergo Jesus told the truth?

Also, the Bible says that a prophet is proven by his words.

Muslims believe in the false prophet mohammad

MUHAMMAD FOUNDED MOHAMMEDANISM (islam).

#1 Mohammad says in the quran 39:12

YUSUFALI: "And I am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam."

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#2 MOHAMMAD FAILED THE TEST OF PROPHET HOOD, if muhammad's allah was true, it would have informed him about the poisoned goat, which later led to his death.

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Ibn Sa'd page 249: Verily a Jewish woman presented poisoned (meat of) a she goat to the apostle of Allah. He took a piece form it, put it into his mouth, chewed it and threw it away. Then he said to the Companions: "Halt! Verily, its leg tells me that it is poisoned." Then he sent for the Jewish woman and asked her; "What induced you to do what you have done?" She replied, "I wanted to know if you are true; in that case Allah will surely inform you, and if you are a liar I shall relieve the people of you."

**PROPHET HOOD FAILED**: The question here is weather allah told muhammad that the goat is poisoned or not? CLEARLY NOT, as he had to put it in his mouth. Quran says "if you are true; in that case Allah will surely inform you" {muhammad would not eat the goat and he would not die} but because allah NEVER informed him, and muhammad was a liar he ate it and he died, just as the verse says "if you are a liar I shall relieve the people of you."

After all this even if Muhammad knew that it was poisoned, and he still put it (goat) in his mouth, he committed suicide.

And if he came to know after chewing it, its nothing special as anybody would know after they chewed it, no need for special powers.

#3 Mohammedans do not have any supporting evidence to prove mohammad was a prophet (other than he being a self proclaimed prophet, with hallucinations). He has not been mentioned in either of the earlier original texts (Torah/Bible).

#4 Even if we agree that muhammad was illiterate, certain questions come up like, who wrote the quran?, if not muhammad then how did he verify what he was narrating to his biographers or his contemporaries, weather it was exactly what he wanted them to write?

#5 Muhammad forced the Arab moon god allah on everyone. I say this because, mohammad's father, A PAGAN, had the name Abdullah meaning servant of allah much before mohammad had his "revelations"

#6 Muhammad was called a liar

Muhammad informed Umar [the second Caliph], and he called the Prophet a liar. Ishaq:567.

#7 Muhammad broke oaths as he wished and advised mohammedans to do the same

If you ever take an oath to do something and later on you find that something else is better, then you should expiate your oath and do what is better." Sahih Bukhari 9:89:260

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#8 Mohammad being a false prophet did not perform any miracle.

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The Qur'an very clearly says of Muhammad that he performed no signs. In Surah 6.37, when Muhammad's adversaries say "Why has no sign been sent down to him from his Lord?", Muhammad is bidden to reply merely that God could send one if he wanted to but had not done so.

In the same Surah we read that Muhammad said, "I have not that for which you are impatient" (Surah 6.57), meaning signs and wonders such as Moses had. He goes on to say that if he had had them, the dispute between him and them would have been decided long ago.

# 9 Muslims PRAY to Mohammad like he said to do:

Tirmidhi relates, through his chain of narrators from 'Uthman ibn Hunayf, that a blind man came to the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) and said, "I've been afflicted in my eyesight, so please pray to Allah for me." The Prophet (Allah bless him and grant him peace) said: "Go make ablution (wudu), perform two rak'as of prayer, and then say:

"Oh Allah, I ask You and turn to You through my Prophet Muhammad, the Prophet of mercy; O MUHAMMAD (YA MUHAMMAD), I SEEK YOUR INTERCESSION with my Lord for the return of my eyesight [and in another version: "for my need, that it may be fulfilled. O Allah, grant him intercession for me"]."

Do the readers see how Muhammad specifically instructed the blind man to address him directly in his prayer? The blind man wasn’t told to simply pray to Allah asking him to heal him on behalf of Muhammad. He was also directed to address Muhammad directly and personally ask him in the prayer to intercede for him.

But as far as Islam is concerned He didn't tell the truth about being God.

Muslims do not believe in the New Testament, so you are using circular reasoning [common among Christians].

Son of Man: In all three major Semitic languages (Aramaic, Hebrew, and Arabic) the term barnasha means "human being". Jesus often referred to himself as a human being (28 times in the Gospels). Barnasha comes from bar (son) and nasha (man). The meaning of barnasha has created a lot of confusion in the Gospels. It is impossible to translate the Aramaic term of barnasha literally as "son of man" - and yet most biblical translators have and still do just that to this day. In the Aramaic language the word bar is combined with many other words to create different meanings - most specifically is means a "likeness." For example barabba means "resembles his father". Barhila translated literally would mean "son of power" but in reality it means "soldier". So when we read in the Gospels the phrase "son of man" it should be read correctly as "human being".

Son of God: The word bar means a likeness or resemblance to the suffix word. The Aramaic term that Son of God comes from is bardalaha. Translated literally as "son of God" it does not mean this. Bardalaha in reality means "like God" or "God-like". So when Jesus is referred to as the "Son of God" we should read this correctly as "God-like" or "like God". So what does that tell you about the translation we read in today's Bibles? It tells you that Jesus was not the Son of God - but that he was "God-like". There is a big difference. Jesus himself repeatedly referred to himself as a "human being". The Aramaic reference does not mean one is physically divine - it means there is an important spiritual relationship between God and the man whom is bestowed that phraseology. In addition, don't forget that the Council of Nicea in 325 CE voted to change the human Jesus to a supernatural being. It wasn't until that time that any church thought of Jesus as such.

Only Begotten Son: The world ehedaya is Aramaic. It is very important to understand its meaning when hearing that phrase being bantered about. When we read that Jesus was God's "only begotten son" - it is an incorrect translation of the Aramaic word. The term is found exclusively in the Gospel of John. The phrase we read in English was translated from a Greek word, monogenes. Monos means "single" or "one" and genos means "kind". So the Greek translation originally was with "one-of-a-kind". So where does 'begotten' come from? The Greek word genos is distantly related to the verb gennan which means "to beget". Thus, to translate monogenes as "only begotten" is improper and incorrect--which is an indication of an ill-trained translator being involved with the text. The actual translation should be "unique son" or "one-of-a-kind". The Aramaic word ehedaya means "sole heir" and "the beloved". So when we combine monogenes ehedaya we get "one-of-a-kind, beloved son". That's considerably different from 'only begotten son'.

Jesus(PBUH) told the truth, yes.

But the writers of the Bible were not Jesus.

They came hundreds of years after Jesus(PBUH) ascended.

He never said anything mentioned in the Bible.

Those are man-made doctrine.