How do you get eternal torture form John 3:16?

Jesus showed that Jehovah’s love is expansive. Jesus noted: “God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life.” (John 3:16) The Greek word rendered “world” does not mean “the earth.” As used here, it refers to humans—really, to all humankind. So great is God’s love for the human family that he gave his most precious Son in order that faithful humans might be freed from the grip of sin and death and have the prospect of everlasting life. We cannot begin to measure the breadth or plumb the depth of such a great love.—Romans 8:38, 39.

Bible refers to the final state of damnation (“Gehenna”; ), it often uses the vocabulary of “destruction,” the Greek “verb apollumi (to destroy) and the noun apòleia (destruction).” Do these words refer to torment? Stott points out that when the verb is active and transitive, “apollumi” means “kill.” (Matthew 2:13; 12:14; 21:41) Thus, at Matthew 10:28, where the King James Version mentions God’s destroying “both soul and body in hell,” the inherent idea is destroying in death, not in eternal suffering. At Matthew 7:13, 14, Jesus contrasts the “narrow . . . road leading off into life” with the “broad . . . road leading off into destruction.” Comments Stott: “It would seem strange, therefore, if people who are said to suffer destruction are in fact not destroyed.” With good reason he reaches the conclusion: “If to kill is to deprive the body of life, hell would seem to be the deprivation of both physical and spiritual life, that is, an extinction of being.”—

This is a good question and perfectly valid. I suspect the question might be related to the question of whether punishment in hell is eternal torture or not.

The Greek texts for John 3:16 does indeed use the Greek word "Apollumi", which is translated as "perish" in the main English Bible translations (KJV, NIV, ASV etc). It seems if "Apollumi" can be used as a metaphore for "eternal misery in hell". One can also use other references in the Bible about the same topic (the eternity of hell) to explain this reference, for example Matthew 25:46 (ASV):

"And these shall go away into eternal punishment: but the righteous into eternal life." Note that "eternal" is used both for "life" and "punishment". As such, the Bible is an ancient Greek writing where the context of the rest of the Bible does indicate that hell is permanent and definitely unpleasant and removed from God and therefore from love. Does it imply eternal torture, of which the poor souls in hell will be constantly aware off? I cannot say that with my limited knowledge, but I do know that salvation from sins and the effects thereof (including hell) is available by grace though faith in Christ Jesus.

= "... that whosoever believeth in him should not PERISH, but have everlasting life. "

By the same token, those who do not believe in him should PERISH and not have eternal life.

So, it is impossible to be in hell forever - as those in hell do not have eternal life and should perish.

Just to show the kind of illogical fear doctrine christians have made up over the centuries....

I believe that teaching became popular through Dante's Inferno...

Wrong verse