Yahoo Answers is shutting down on May 4th, 2021 (Eastern Time) and beginning April 20th, 2021 (Eastern Time) the Yahoo Answers website will be in read-only mode. There will be no changes to other Yahoo properties or services, or your Yahoo account. You can find more information about the Yahoo Answers shutdown and how to download your data on this help page.
Trending News
Physics Question!! What did i do wrong?
I drew the diagram and everything in the end i got 2.22 s but it was wrong. dont know what i did wrong.
A football is kicked at ground level with a speed of 40.0 m/s at an angle of 33.0° to the horizontal. How much later does it hit the ground?
____ s
4 Answers
- AenimaLv 69 years agoFavorite Answer
The time at which the ball takes to hit the ground, if there is no air friction, only depends on the y component of position, velocity and acceleration.
Knowing this, we only need to use equation y(t) = y0 + v0y*t +.5at^2, where the initial position y0 = 0, y(t) = 0 since the ball leaves the ground and hits the ground at time t, v0y being the y component of speed (v0y = v0*sin(theta)) and a being -g.
- Anonymous9 years ago
These questions usually ignore wind resistance, take sin 33, multiply by 40 gives the vertical velocity. Then use v=vo -1/2at^2, and find t. this is time to the top. (ie vertical v=1/2at^2) when a=gravity.
Then half this vertical velocity *t will give distance it rose in the air, but that's not needed cos
Then it will fall back down due to gravity, with the same deceleration it had going up, so you can probably double the time.
- 9 years ago
ok so you have to get both the vertical component of velocity here
40 sin 33 to get the vertical
40 cos 33 to get the horizontal
then you can do v=vo+at
where v=0
vo= 40 sin 33
a=9.8
t= unknown
solve for t, and thats the time it takes to get to the max height of the football, multiply this by 2 to get the answer because that time happens twice, once to go up, once to go down
- molacekLv 45 years ago
this question bargains with countless sequence, and whether or no longer they converge or diverge. The Greek philosophers and mathematicians could desire to no longer satisfactorily answer such questions via fact the maths to handle an infinte sequence of infinitesimal quantities had no longer been progressed. hence, modern mathematicians in sequence and set theory and so on do no longer evaluate that the object on no account reaches its objective. fairly they say the observor is basically take a swifter and swifter sequence of snapshots, with the intention to communicate. counting on how the sequence or sequence is defined, at times the objective won't be attained, a minimum of mathematically. however the sequence gained via successively dividing a quantity in 0.5 and addin all of the words does converge, to a million, representing "accomplishing the objective". In math, time and different conceptual variables could nicely be divided indefinitely. In physics you may attain distinctive limits imposed via quantum mechanics, below which we will not say if or how our physics applies. hence the infinte branch approach is extremely meaningless in physics.