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"Palestine in the time of Christ" - why this phrase on the map page of every Bible, if it were not Palestine?
For the more than 40 years of my life, I've always seen this phrase in Bibles of different languages, and for almost the exact same period of my life, I've met with arguments that there's no such thing as Palestine and that it's all about Israel and Judea. Why then, if it were so, is the name Palestine used to refer to the Holy Land in the holy history book of that land? Is that not some sort of historical deed (or proof) to the legitimacy of the Palestinian claim to the land?
Please note that I do not refer to the present day Muslim majority Palestinian nation, but Palestine throughout history, which for centuries before Islam was predominantly Christian, especially that the Romans used the name quite officially after the diaspora of the Jews in 70 AD.
1 Answer
- ?Lv 49 years agoFavorite Answer
There is no need for any other proof that the Palestinians have been robbed of their land and furthermore they have had to suffer the brutal oppression of those who robbed them of it.
