Jehovah's Witnesses: What if Jehovah doesn't want to be called by this name?

Abernathy was using only one verse in Genesis of the Codex Leningradensis (Spiritual Warfare), where YHWH was only once translated into Yehowah!

Quotes from http://www.bahaistudies.net/asma/yhwh-wikipedia.pd...

From the Codex Leningradensis on page 14...

Genesis 3:14

הָוֹהְי Yǝhōwāh [41] This is the most common set of vowels, which are essentially the vowels from Adonai (with the hataf patah reverting to its natural state as a shewa).

Judges 16:28

הָוהְי Yǝhwāh [42] This is the same as above, but with the dot over the holam/waw left out, because it is a little redundant.

Judges 16:28

הִוֹהֱי Yĕhōwih [43] When the Tetragrammaton is preceded by Adonai, it receives the vowels from the name Elohim instead. The hataf segol does not revert to a shewa because doing so could lead to

confusion with the vowels in Adonai.

Genesis 15:2

הִוהֱי Yĕhwih [44] Just as above, this uses the vowels from Elohim, but like the second version, the dot over the holam/waw is omitted as redundant.

1 Kings 2:26

הִוֹהְי Yǝhōwih [45] Here, the dot over the holam/waw is present, but the hataf segol does get reverted to a shewa.

Ezekiel 24:24

הִוהְי Yǝhwih [46] Here, the dot over the holam/waw is omitted, and the hataf segol gets reverted to a shewa.

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Page 13...

The oldest manuscripts of the Hebrew Bible, such as the Aleppo Codex and the Codex Leningradensis mostly write

הָוהְי (yehvah), with no pointing on the first H; this points to its Qere being 'Shema', which is Aramaic for "the Name".

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Obviously the vowels in that one instance of "Yehowah" in the Codex Leningradensis of Genesis 3:14 were from the vowels in "Adonai", making "LORD" the most appropriate translation of YHWH in our English Bibles!

This also means the monk in what the JWs call the "Whore of Babylon the Great" has used the Latin form "Iehouah" too hastily from opening up to YHWH in Genesis 3:14 and borrowed "Yehowah" without even bothering to read the rest of the Codex in context!

Your argument is riddled with mistakes.

For example, a monk in the 12th century did not come up with "Jehovah." The form "YeHoWaH" is in the earliest vowel pointed Hebrew texts, including the Aleppo Codex and the Codex Leningradensis. These both pre-date your monk by several hundred years. The only thing with the monk is that his is the earliest surviving example that we have of that Hebrew form transliterated into Latin - that is all.

As for your example of Jesus - it is logically absurd that just because Jesus called God "Father" that means that he never uttered the divine name. That doesn't follow. And there is evidence in the Bible that Jesus used the divine name. For example, he is quoted as reading Old Testament passages that contain the divine name. Considering his disdain for man made Jewish traditions, it is unlikely he would have followed that practice. Furthermore, there is evidence that the divine name was in the original New Testament, but that it was replaced with "Lord," as was clearly done in the Septuagint.

Saying that we shouldn't call God by his name because he is our "Father," for the reason that we don't call our parents by their names, is also logically invalid. It is a false analogy because our parents are our physical parents, and God is our spiritual father. They are in two separate categories. And the undisputed evidence from the Old Testament and archeological findings. shows that people called God by the divine name all the time.

[edit]

"A name no Israelite would ever be caught uttering...except for the High Priest."

(I didn't see that the first time around.)

The Bible says absolutely nothing of this. It is clear you are getting this information from extra-biblical sources, and not the Bible itself.

The Bible clearly shows that in day to day conversation, the Israelites used God's name. They used it when talking about God and in address to God. Archeological evidences such as the Lachish ostraca show that God's name was used by the people. The Mesha Stele shows that even pagan people were familiar with the name - something not possible if God's name was only uttered by the High Priest in the Most Holy.

The first century Pharisee Josephus says that in his time, only the High Priest could utter the divine name. However, like I said before, Jesus condemned man made non-biblical traditions, especially those of the Pharisees. Therefore I fail to see how Josephus' testimony backs up your claims.

I repeat Ginosko9...

Well, General, since the Bible doesn't show ANYWHERE that Jehovah doesn't want to be called by his name, I guess your question has no relevance. HOWEVER since God Himself has chosen a people FOR HIS NAME (Acts 15:14), then I would think that it is VITAL to use it. The question is, what name? LORD? God? Father? Almighty? Those are TITLES, not a PERSONAL name.

Therefore your argument, just like every other one regarding God's personal name, has no relevance what so ever!

If he reveals to us he does not want to be called by the Name of Jehovah, that is OK with us. He will make it known, and in fact in the New System he probably will reveal the exact pronunciation of his Name as he wants us to refer to him. We use the English Name Jehovah because we speak English; people in other languages use other spellings and pronunciations.

You stated "A name no Israelite would ever be caught uttering...except for the High Priest."

I would refer you to the Hebrew of Ruth 2:4, where we read in English: “And, look! Boaz came from Bethlehem and proceeded to say to the harvesters: “Jehovah be with you.” In turn they would say to him: “Jehovah bless you.” His Name was used in every day conversation.

As a side note about names in various languages, I find the account about Dorcas / Tabitha interesting, the way it is written, in Acts 9:36-40. Her names are used interchangeably.

How else can anyone be saved without calling upon the name of YEHOVAH?

Yoel 2:32 And it shall be, whoever shall call on the name of YEHOVAH shall be saved; for salvation shall be in Mount Zion and in Yerushalayim, as YEHOVAH has said, and in the remnant whom YEHOVAH shall call.

- In the literal Hebrew Scriptures people are not saved by calling upon the name of Jesus or Lord. The Hebrew name Yehoshua is crying out that it is Yehovah that saves but Christianity is suppressing this from the people by Anglicizing the names in Scripture and teaching people it is not important to know the Father's name.

http://lexiconcordance.com/hebrew/3091.html

http://www.dictionary.co.il/hebrew_word.php?topic=...

- We can know how to pronounce the name of our Creator, it is objectively and literally recorded in the vocalized Aleppo Codex and Leningrad Codex.

http://www.everlastingkingdom.info/article/54/do-y...

http://www.karaite-korner.org/yhwh_2.pdf

http://www.cross.tv/84839

Considering all the millions of gods that have been and are here now (even your stomach could be your god), I have a question for you?

What STANDS OUT in your worship if you merely say "I worship God"<<<<even using a CAP "G"?!?! Nothing!!!

When we say "Jehovah", or whatever pronunciation a person would use, depending on what LANGUAGE you speak, "everyone knows exactly who it is you are talking about"!

Further, when a couple are about to become parents, they go to a great deal of trouble to find a good name for their son or daughter. They will even go into what the nickname would be. They sometimes have 3 and 4 middle names. In other words, they want that child to be "Special" in their mind and heart. That is how Jehovah's Witnesses feel after knowing what the Bible has to say about "Him".

And, what would be the worse thing the devil could ever do to Jehovah? I would say getting translators confused about the significance...think about it! It prevents people from really understanding accurate knowledge. That and the lie of the trinity doctrine has been perpetuated down to our day.

AND, guess what? Jehovah isn't so "Picky" that he even cares if the pronunciation is slightly off! Imagine that! :D

Psalm 83:18

King James Version (KJV)

18 That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the most high over all the earth.

You said:

"What happens to your faith if you were to discover that...Jehovah doesn't want to be called by this name?"

Well, General, since the Bible doesn't show ANYWHERE that Jehovah doesn't want to be called by his name, I guess your question has no relevance. HOWEVER since God Himself has chosen a people FOR HIS NAME (Acts 15:14), then I would think that it is VITAL to use it. The question is, what name? LORD? God? Father? Almighty? Those are TITLES, not a PERSONAL name.

Therefore your argument, just like every other one regarding God's personal name, has no relevance what so ever!

I agree with Bible John " There is no proof what so ever that Jesus went by the traditions of the Jews and did not say the personal name of God.

We know that the divine name was recorded in the OT, so when Jesus was tempted by the devil and quote the OT you can bet that he used the divine name, so here it is at Matt 4: 8-10

"Again the Devil took him along to an unusually high mountain, and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory, 9 and he said to him: “All these things I will give you if you fall down and do an act of worship to me.” 10 Then Jesus said to him: “Go away, Satan! For it is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’"

Do you hinestly believe that Jesus would have not used his father name? When he said, "I have made your (his fathers) name known to them, he was not talking about "father" that is not his name but rather a title, but he made his name Jehovah/Yehweh known to them!

For those that say Jehovah is a English translation, you need to look at the name you use for Jesus, is that also a English name?

Must we stop using the name of Jesus because most of us, or even all of us, do not really know its original pronunciation? So far, no translator has suggested this. We like to use the name, for it identifies the beloved Son of God, Jesus Christ, who gave his lifeblood for us. Would it be showing honor to Jesus to remove all mention of his name in the Bible and replace it with a mere title like "Teacher," or "Mediator"? Of course not! We can relate to Jesus when we use his name the way it is commonly pronounced in our language.

It is sad however that many translations removed the divine name all together, if Jehovah did not want it there her would have made sure that it was not put into the original manuscripts!!

There is no proof what so ever that Jesus went by the traditions of the Jews and did not say the personal name of God.

See the article: "God's Name—Its Meaning and Pronunciation"

http://www.watchtower.org/e/na/index.htm

If He didn't, He would not have had His personal, self-designated name included in the Holy Scriptures.

Regardless, that some men tried to hide it; remove it; and not pronounce it....

due to their own wickedness.

Jehovah is stronger than all of them, they are dust.

Jesus did use his God and Father's personal name.

At John 17:6, 26 - we find this:

v. 6 “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world.

They were yours, and you gave them to me, and they have observed your word.

And v. 26

26And I have made your name known to them and will make it known,

in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them.”

What if Jesus doesn't want to be called by this name ? Some think his name was Jehoshia .