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Why does BC have condemnation, but AD no condemnation?

Eg: Romans 4:15

where no law, there no transgression

Eg: Romans 5:13

when no law, then no sin is imputed

Eg: Romans 8:1

there is therefore now no condemnation

not even to CJ folk who think

law makes them free of law;

which is as absurd as thinking

death makes you free of death

Hint: John 3:17

God did not send his Son to condemn

but Jesus condemned: Mt 23:14 & Mt 25:46,

and Christ would not condemn: John 8:11

so BC means Before Christ,

when even Jesus condemned

so Jesus had to go away for comfort to come

5 Answers

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  • 9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    You appear to be twisting scriptures to make them seem to mean what they do not mean.

    Pray tell me this:

    Were not the people outside the ark when flood came, condemned (BC, yes but also BL -- Before Law)?

    Were not Ananias and Sapphira condemned AD? (Acts 5:1-10)

    Does not Hebrews 10:26-31 speak of condemnation AD?

    The condemnation that Christians escape is the condemnation that comes from not strictly adherring to the Mosaic Law. They escape this condemnation by their faith in Christ who fulfilled the Law on their behalf. But they are still subject to comdemnation if they willfully practice wrongs that are not peculiar to the Mosaic Law -- wrongs that have always been plainly evident to the consciences of faithfull worshippers of God since before the giving of the Mosaic Law.

  • 9 years ago

    It is because of the "Great Exchange."

    God in Christ, took upon Himself our sin (our breaking of the Law) and in exchange He imputes to believers His righteousness (the fulfillment of the Law in being without sin).

    This has to do with the concept of "original sin". Since we would all be incapable of sinlessness, God imputed Adam's sin to us before we were even born, bringing death to all of Adam's descendents on his account. Even innocent babies in the womb who have never sinned, can still suffer death which is the wage or punishment for sin. This would seem unfair and many bristle at it, but because death was imputed to us for Adam's sin, it is also "justified" to impute to us Christ's righteousness by no merit of our own!

    If God would have waited until each one of us fell to our own sins and judged us upon those sins, there would be no justice in imputing Christ's righteousness to us. So this was indeed a "Great Exchange". On the cross God reconciled all things to Himself in Christ.

    Adam's sin was imputed to us, so we do not die because of our own sin! Therefore we are "justified" through faith, not by our own righteousness or works (which could never merit reconciliation with God and receive the gift of eternal life through Christ's righteousness!). And Christ, having fulfilled the law, ended it. As Paul said, the Law was only a standard given to teach us that we could never fulfill God's standard of righteousness on our own, so we would understand our need for a Savior and lead us to Christ.

    At the same time we must understand that Jesus' righteousness was imputed to those before His incarnation as well. This was done by a "proxy" sacrifice in symbol of what was to come. People were "saved" before Christ in the same way as before, they were "justified" by faith via the sacrifice.

    Also, that Jesus told the Pharisees that they were condemned did not imply that HE condemned them, they were condemned by the Law, because they could neither fulfill it nor did they believe on the One sent to free them from it!

  • 9 years ago

    God changed his mind, man.

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    Too bad that comfort never arrived.

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