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Questions regarding the human "race"?

If Paul The Apostle notes this: in a human "race"

they/we both "run", but only one of such gets the prize:

- they who run it to obtain corruptible law get the surprise.

- we who run it to obtain incorruptible grace get the prize.

Then why would anyone run it to obtain corruptible law?

Surprise, which law has for it's runners? 1Thessalonian 5:3.

When they shall say "Peace and safety" in 'rule of law', then

sudden destruction comes upon them, and as if by surprise.

What then? They shall not escape the consequential shame.

So why would anyone wanna play this blame game, which

ends up being ouched & numbered with the transgressors?

If first "finished" a "race" = "win", and

second "finished" a race = "place", and if told what

"it is finished" gives place unto is death: James 1:15,

then why do many flock to the 2nd "finished" in John 19:30,

instead of the first "finished" in John 17:4 before the cross?

Doesn't will of God say: "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice"?

Why would anyone take the sacrifice batton and run with it,

if sacrifice is offered by the law: Hebrews 10:8, and

no man is justified by the law: Galatians 3:11,

which included Jesus = division, not peace?

If grace is said to be "much more" abounding

than law, why would any run on the side of law?

Perhaps that's why Paul The Apostle cleverly

turned CJ around to JC in Philippians 3,

to turn a suffering loss into a gainful win.

So why do any still say CJ instead of JC,

especially if the law of CJ is against us

and the grace of JC is with you all?

Doesn't Hebrews 12 say lay aside beseting laws

in order to do the end run the race with patience?

And if the end of the race has no mention of law,

only of grace, why would anyone run the law race?

2 Answers

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  • 9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    I see that time hasn't reduced your level of incoherence any.

  • Very obscure thoughts from a benighted mind.

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