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Jehovah's Witnesses: What's the difference between dissipation to gases and corruption?
The Watchtower says that Jesus' body suffered no corruption.
But it also claims that Jesus' body was dissipated into gases.
What's the difference?
If I were suddenly vaporized, would you say my body suffered no corruption?
Why does Jesus tell his disciples in Luke 24:39 to be NOT afraid because he is NOT a spirit if he actually IS a spirit?
Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have. What does Jesus mean when he says "it is I myself"? How can it be himself if the physical Jesus they knew was dissolved into gases?
What exactly is the Biblical definition of a "spirit person"? What's the difference between a spirit and a spirit person?
@BAR-ANERGES:"Sonny, are you misrepresenting our beliefs again? Please show me the quote where our literature said we believe Jesus’ body “was dissipated into gases.” The only quote like this is over a hundred years ago and it did not say that was a belief of Bible Students. What it said was “We know nothing about what became of it, except that it did not decay or corrupt (Ac 2:27,31). Whether it was dissolved into gases or whether it is still preserved somewhere...no one knows--nor is such knowledge necessary.”
Greetings Bar, as per usual you have dominated the answer list with an abnormally verbose retort. There is no way I can respond to everything you've written, but allow me to respond to your first paragraph with scripture: "And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins." (Read 1Cor.15:16-20)
5 Answers
- .Lv 69 years agoFavorite Answer
not a jw. but your question is too hard for them.
you see the rants in attempt to justify the men they worship.
Jesus was so badly beaten and likely swollen up. When he came back and walked among them they did not recognize him. His body never saw corruption, it never decomposed.
It was not possible that Jesus be held by death.(Acts 2:24)
Jesus himself tells everyone that he will raise himself after his death. He says;
Destroy this temple(his body) and I in 3 days will raise it...he spoke of the temple of his body(John 2:19 &21)
Acts 2:24- Whom God has raised up...
Acts 2:32 This Jesus has God raised up, where of we are all witnesses.
no human can help them see. They must seek truth with their hearts and not believe every spirit that leads them. 1 John 4:1
Beware of false prophets, which come in sheeps clothing, but inwardly they are ravenous wolves. You shall know them by their fruits.- Matthew 7:15&16
Source(s): ________________________ jw's foundation--->http://youtu.be/joU-Pe6YqME - CFLv 79 years ago
Jesus resurrection "in the spirit" is different from Jesus materializing human bodies to prove to his disciples he had really been resurrected.
Jesus Christ is called “the firstborn from the dead.” (Col 1:18) He was the first ever to be resurrected to everlasting life. And his resurrection was “in the spirit,” to life in heaven. (1Pe 3:18) Moreover, he was raised to a higher form of life and a higher position than that which he had held in the heavens prior to coming to earth. He was granted immortality and incorruption, which no creature in the flesh can have, and was made “higher than the heavens,” second only to Jehovah God in the universe. (Heb 7:26; 1Ti 6:14-16; Php 2:9-11; Ac 2:34; 1Co 15:27) His resurrection was performed by Jehovah God himself.—Ac 3:15; 5:30; Ro 4:24; 10:9.
The physical body of Jesus Christ was not allowed to decay into dust as did the bodies of Moses and David, men who were used to foreshadow Christ. (De 34:5, 6; Ac 13:35, 36; 2:27, 31) When his disciples went to the tomb early on the first day of the week, Jesus’ body had disappeared, and the bandages with which his body had been wrapped were left in the tomb, his body doubtless having been disintegrated without passing through the process of decaying.—Joh 20:2-9; Lu 24:3-6.
After Jesus’ resurrection he appeared in different bodies. Mary mistook him for the gardener. (Joh 20:14, 15) He again appeared, entering a room with locked doors, having a body with wound marks. (Joh 20:24-29) Several times he manifested himself and was recognized, not by his appearance, but by his words and actions. (Lu 24:15, 16, 30, 31, 36-45; Mt 28:16-18) Once a miracle performed at his direction opened his disciples’ eyes to his identity. (Joh 21:4-7, 12) Jesus, having been resurrected as a spirit (1Pe 3:18), could materialize a body for the occasion as the angels did in past times, when they appeared as messengers. (Ge 18:2; 19:1, 12; Jos 5:13, 14; Jg 13:3, 6; Heb 13:2)
During the days before the Flood, the angels that “did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place” performed an incarnation and married human wives. That these angelic sons of God were not truly human but had materialized bodies is shown by the fact that the Flood did not destroy these angels, but they dematerialized and returned to the spirit realm.—Jude 6; Ge 6:4; 1Pe 3:19, 20; 2Pe 2:4.
Source(s): it-2 pp. 783-793 Resurrection it-1 pp. 348-350 Body - Anonymous9 years ago
Greetings,
Sonny, are you misrepresenting our beliefs again? Please show me the quote where our literature said we believe Jesus’ body “was dissipated into gases.” The only quote like this is over a hundred years ago and it did not say that was a belief of Bible Students. What it said was “We know nothing about what became of it, except that it did not decay or corrupt (Ac 2:27,31). Whether it was dissolved into gases or whether it is still preserved somewhere...no one knows--nor is such knowledge necessary.”
So your question is illogical and hypocritical. First, Witnesses never said they believed such a thing and second we don’t believe what was taught over a hundred years ago any more than you believe everything that your religious writers wrote a hundred years ago.
Now, Witnesses used the term "dissolved" but again the last time we used it was in 1953 (WT 9/1; 518). But, today we don’t use that term to explain how God disposed of Christ's human body. It’s not inaccurate since one of its definitions is "to separate into parts or elements; disintegrate but "dissolve" also has unwanted connotations such as a slower process.
The ‘53 article clearly goes on to explain what it meant: "It was disposed of by Jehovah God, dissolved into its constituent elements or atoms... God caused Jesus' body to disappear, but not corrupt, meaning that it was dissolved, disintegrated back into the elements from which all human bodies are made—Jn 20:1-13."
In other words, in harmony with prophecy, Christ’s body was not allowed to corrupt or decay. God disposed of it in a manner consistent with His will.
In fact, the term "dissolved" is a scriptural term which was used by Paul to show that those resurrected to heaven do not keep their visible fleshly bodes. Rather their "earthly tents" are "dissolved" (2Cor. 5:1, KJV, ASV, WEB). Significantly the translators of the NKJV also changed their use of this term and now reads "destroyed" (RSV, NEB, NIV).
The rendering "destroyed" gives the proper denotation of what was meant by the word "dissolved" as used by the WT and the KJV.
Death and corruption was the punishment for sinful humans and so was NOT appropriate for the perfect man Jesus. It Christ body was not allowed to see corruption or decompose like sinful humans then God must have disposed of it in some instantaneous manner. So it is only logical to conclude that God miraculously caused Jesus' body to disappear without corruption by being disintegrated (dissolved) back into the elements from which all human bodies are made.
Jesus Christ gave his *flesh* as a ransom for us (Jn 6:51). Having given us his flesh if he ever took it back again he would nullify his sacrifice. If Christ had kept his body then there was no ransom!
According to Heb. 10:5-10 Christ's physical body was "prepared" so that it could be "offered," once and for all time. So when it had been "offered" then it had served it's purposed. Then, just as the animal sacrifices under the Law were disposed of so likewise would the body of Jesus would be disposed of (Heb. 13:10,11).
Some use Lk 24:37-39 as evidence for their belief that those resurrected to heaven take their physical bodies with them. They claim that Christ here rejected the Apostles' understanding that he was a spirit being.
However, all the explicit statements in Scripture asserting that the resurrected Christ has a spirit body argues against this. Contextually there is a better interpretation that does not cause a contradiction in God's Word:
When we examine Luke's use of the word "spirit" we find that he uses it to refer to "demons" five times and NEVER uses the word 'spirit' in reference to spirit *bodies* or to angels (Lk. 4:33; 8:29; 9:39, 42. All other uses refer to H.S. or an individual's disposition.) Therefore, according to Luke's normal usage, Jesus' reply had absolutely nothing to do with whether he had a spirit or fleshly body in heaven.
So, Christ was simply assuring them that he was not an evil spirit, which would explain the disciples' fright. Christ's reply ONLY shows that he materialized a fleshly body for the occasion to prove his resurrection (Acts 1:3 "positive proofs").
This can be the only logical and Scriptural conclusion when all the facts are examined.
Support for this conclusion is provided by Mat. 14:26 which shows that the disciples were afraid of what they thought was an "apparition," PHANTASMA. ("Ghost" some translations).
Since this verse has nothing to do with Christ's body in heaven any use of this verse as evidence that Christ has a spirit body is twisting the verse out of context.
Every explicit Scripture says that Jesus was resurrected with an invisible "spirit" body and not a visible fleshly body (1Tim.6:16; Eph 1:17,18; 1Pt.3:18; 1Cor 15:42-50; Ac.13:34; 2Cor.5:16; Lk17:20; Mt.24:3-39; 25:31; Jn 6:51; Heb.2:7-9, Phil.2:7-10).
Yours,
BAR-ANERGES
- Bamboo tigerLv 59 years ago
(Acts 2:25-31) 25Â For David says respecting him, ‘I had Jehovah constantly before my eyes; because he is at my right hand that I may never be shaken. 26Â On this account my heart became cheerful and my tongue rejoiced greatly. Moreover, even my flesh will reside in hope; 27Â because you will not leave my soul in Ha′des, neither will you allow your loyal one to see corruption. 28Â You have made life’s ways known to me, you will fill me with good cheer with your face.’ 29Â “Men, brothers, it is allowable to speak with freeness of speech to YOU concerning the family head David, that he both deceased and was buried and his tomb is among us to this day. 30Â Therefore, because he was a prophet and knew that God had sworn to him with an oath that he would seat one from the fruitage of his loins upon his throne, 31Â he saw beforehand and spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that neither was he forsaken in Ha′des nor did his flesh see corruption.
New International Version (©1984)
Seeing what was ahead, he spoke of the resurrection of the Christ, that he was not abandoned to the grave, nor did his body see decay.
New Living Translation (©2007)
David was looking into the future and speaking of the Messiah's resurrection. He was saying that God would not leave him among the dead or allow his body to rot in the grave.
Weymouth New Testament
with prophetic foresight he spoke of the resurrection of the Christ, to the effect that He was not left forsaken in the Unseen World, nor did His body undergo decay.
World English Bible
he foreseeing this spoke about the resurrection of the Christ, that neither was his soul left in Hades, nor did his flesh see decay.
Does Jesus have his fleshly body in heaven?
1 Cor. 15:42-50, RS: “So is it with the resurrection of the dead. What is sown is perishable, what is raised is imperishable. . . . It is sown a physical body, it is raised a spiritual body. . . . Thus it is written, ‘The first man Adam became a living being’; the last Adam [Jesus Christ, who was a perfect human as Adam had been at the start] became a life-giving spirit. . . . I tell you this, brethren: flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.”
1 Pet. 3:18, RS: “Christ also died for sins once for all, . . . being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit [“in the spirit,” NE, AT, JB, Dy].”
Illustration: If a man pays a debt for a friend but then promptly takes back the payment, obviously the debt continues. Likewise, if, when he was resurrected, Jesus had taken back his human body of flesh and blood, which had been given in sacrifice to pay the ransom price, what effect would that have had on the provision he was making to relieve faithful persons of the debt of sin?
It is true that Jesus appeared in physical form to his disciples after his resurrection. But on certain occasions, why did they not at first recognize him? (Luke 24:15-32; John 20:14-16) On one occasion, for the benefit of Thomas, Jesus appeared with the physical evidence of nail prints in his hands and a spear wound in his side. But how was it possible on that occasion for him suddenly to appear in their midst even though the doors were locked? (John 20:26, 27) Jesus evidently materialized bodies on these occasions, as angels had done in the past when appearing to humans. Disposing of Jesus’ physical body at the time of his resurrection presented no problem for God. Interestingly, although the physical body was not left by God in the tomb (evidently to strengthen the conviction of the disciples that Jesus had actually been raised), the linen cloths in which it had been wrapped were left there; yet, the resurrected Jesus always appeared fully clothed.—John 20:6, 7.
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- BrianLv 59 years ago
Jesus' body was given to the Father as a ransom sacrifice.
Jesus gave it up. It was no longer his. It was given to the Father to ransom mankind. Whatever Jehovah did with it, it would stand to reason that it was not given back to Jesus for him to live in.
Jesus was resurrected as a spirit person. Not a ghost like many out there would confuse you to believe. He was resurrected to the same substance that Jehovah is. Spirit Person.