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To think that Nazi Germany was invading countries that invaded countries- why were they not earlier on the...?
scene to colonize similar to the British Empire?
I know Nazi Germany didn't exist prior to 1932- Edwin Thurgood, perhaps you are the true mong. I meant why didn't the land mass that Germany was have some kind of power that chose to follow the footsteps of the other western powers.
6 Answers
- Anonymous8 years agoFavorite Answer
Prior to the 1800's the German lands were a loosely connected group of small kingdoms. It was only in the middle of the 1800's that they were formally unified into the German Empire.
The only German speaking land that did not become part of the German Empire was Austria, because Austria was very strong on its own and it actually had its own empire which consisted of its neighbors in central Europe. Hungary, the Czech lands, Slovakia, parts of Poland, and the Balkans were all a part of Austria's empire.
In WW1, the German Empire and the Austrian Empire (called Austria-Hungary for complicated reasons) were allies and they were defeated, along with the Ottoman Empire which was dominated by Turkey. When this happened, the Austrian Empire was broken up and all the little countries that were parts of it were made into their own countries. None of these new countries were very powerful, so when the Germans became strong again they easily conquered both Austria and all the little countries that used to be part of Austria's empire, as well as its other neighbors such as Belgium, Denmark, and the Netherlands.
To make a long story short, Germany was a lot of little German kingdoms, and it didn't become one powerful nation until the middle of the 1800's. By then other countries such as England, France, and Spain had already colonized most of the world. Germany did have a few overseas colonies in Africa though.
- 8 years ago
Germany was not an actual country until the 1860ies when it was unified by the Prussians with Otto Bismark as emporer.
By the 1860ies most of Africa & Asia had already been colonized by other European countries.
Italy had the same problem as Germany & did what they could to colonize Libya, Ethiopia, Eritrea & Somalia.
Germany was stuck with German East Africa & a few islands in the Pacific.
Countries such as Holland, Portugal, Spain, France, Britain had been colonizing since the 16th century. Austria had formed an empire with Hungary that encompassed much of what became Yugoslavia & a large portion of northern Italy.
The Nazi's did not want to colonize they just wanted to take territory, erase the native population & give more living space for Germans & also try to pen in the Soviets who were enlarging their empire in areas that the Germans felt should have been German flavored.
No wonder why the USA wanted to stay out of European politics for so long.
- Anonymous4 years ago
In 1938 September, Hitler started his Czech campaign and executed the occupation in a 12 months, named it 'Bohemia & Moravia'. The British brazenly (& the French) extensive-unfold it as a 'fait accompli' interior the intersts of Peace. The conflict replaced into not declared and so there replaced into no WW II. WW II grew to alter right into a certainty while Nazis occupied Poland on September1, 1939 and conflict replaced into declared on Nazi Germany via the British & the French. Anschluss (Austrian occupation) replaced right into a tame affair.
- ?Lv 78 years ago
Germany didn't exist until 1871 - so they were late joining the colonial rush. They did, however, establish colonies in Africa (modern Tanzania and Togo) and a couple of naval bases in the far east (which was why Japan entered WW1).
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- NomaddLv 78 years ago
You mean, why didn't a Reich that didn't exist until 1932 colonize countries in the 17th century?
- Anonymous8 years ago
they werent there, mong