Which is more moral; "A" or "B"?

Question

A)
"No persons may be punished for an offense he or she has not personally committed. Collective penalties and likewise all measures of intimidation or of terrorism are prohibited."

B)
"I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me"

Anonymous · Accepted Answer

Interestingly, the later Israelites would agree with you as they abrogate that teaching. In Ezekiel, for instance, we find the following passage:

"No longer shall this proverb --'the fathers have eaten sour grapes and it is the children's teeth that are set on edge'-- be spoken among you. The soul that sins, that soul shall die [says the LORD]."

It seemed obvious to them that punishing children for their fathers' misdeeds doesn't make sense. The author of the Law codes, however, wasn't so ethical.

? · Answer

I wouldn't say A is immoral
however I still have to go with B, only because B is God speaking and He cannot be immoral, whereas with A it is a law of man, lead to interpretation by man.

This verse is commonly misunderstood or purposefully twisted to mean things it does not.
Try reading this if you care to actually attempt to understand what that verse means: http://www.rationalchristianity.net/punish_sons.html

Anonymous · Answer

A commonsense.

Anonymous · Answer

Only Jesus can save you from Dark Matter .

? · Answer

when god speaks som1s been very very very naughty(unfrorgivable sins) better to hug jesus then he cant hit us

? · Answer

A, obviously.

? · Answer

A

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Which is more moral; "A" or "B"?

7 Answers