Why do atheists and Jews disagree on the applicability of Mosaic law to non-Jews?

Atheists (better named anti-theists) have an interest in attacking God by misinterpreting OT scriptures. They don't make the crucial distinction between disciplinary laws (e.g., abstaining from pork or shellfish) and moral laws (e.g., abstaining from sodomy).

The moral laws of the Old Testament, in particular the Noahide laws, are valid for all people in all times. The disciplinary laws of Sabbath and dietary restrictions and circumcision are only from Jews.

Cheers,

Bruce

I doub tit.

Mosaic law most definitely applies to those who accept it as applying to them. Since it doesn't apply to other folks, like Hindus, Christians, Muslims and Buddhists, why would it apply to atheists?

Are you a little slow or something?

Most atheists saying that either were Christians themselves, or they're used to arguing with Christians. And Christians can't seem to make up their mind about whether they're "under the law" or "under grace" themselves - they seem to invoke Jewish law when it comes to other people, while they prefer to see themselves as "under grace" and exempt from laws for themselves and their loved ones.

So I see it as atheists calling Christians out on their rank hypocrisy.

@Bruce: Same-sex relations are defined as a ritual, not moral, transgression. (Christians almost always misunderstand and misapply Jewish religious/legal distinctions, so you might want to refrain from speaking on behalf of Jewish beliefs/practices.)

I do not recall ever commenting on the question. Perhaps that is because Jews do not try to apply their laws to me.

Edit:

Oh, I see what you mean. It is a different matter for Christians, as they claim the OT as the word of God, and Jesus said that he did not come to abolish the law. Also Christians often imply that we should all be subject to the 10 commandments.