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? asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 7 years ago

The founding fathers wote that 'All men are created equal...' but at the same time, they owned slaves!?

Some of the famous examples are Jefferson, Washington etc. As the founding fathers were obviously not hypocrites, the ***** was not considered as pertinent to the topic by them.

Do you agree?

Update:

That's a typo..pls read 'wrote' in the first line instead of 'wote'..sorry

8 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    7 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    they wrote what they Believed they did Not see slaves as Men and Neither did FDR in WW2

    he issued a memo No African American will be awarded the medal of Honor the First was in 1991 when Most of the Practicing Racists in Congress were Forced to be PC

  • aida
    Lv 7
    7 years ago

    Yes, sadly. Some of the Founding Fathers seem to have recognized the discrepancy between what they were signing and what they were allowing to continue, but it was clear to them that, if they tried to tamper with slavery then, most the southern colonies wouldn't join them, and without a united front comprising all thirteen, they had little hope of prevailing agains Great Britain. So it took another ninety years (well, "four score and seven" :) ) to extend that self-evident truth to all American men.

    As for women, I think the word "men" as it was used there meant members of the human race, not specifically male ones (for anyone who knows some Greek or Latin, "anthropoi" or "homines," not "andres" or "viri").

  • drew
    Lv 4
    7 years ago

    Great question. Washington and Jefferson owned slaves themselves. But from the way that I understand, at least from their mind set, blacks were not "human beings", but work "animals". Therefore not considered being considered a "man". But I'm sure beastology(sex with animals, sheep cows etc) existed and considered a severe mental illness as is today. But that didn't stop them from raping the men, women and children at will. Doesn't make sense does it? Even as late as WWII, blacks were "medically " considered inferior to whites. Strange huh?

  • Anonymous
    7 years ago

    They didn't see the African slaves as truly human. The same thing with the Native Americans, they weren't seen in the same light as White Americans. They also said that women were to weak and emotional to be given the vote. There were several "double standards" in their way of thinking.

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    7 years ago

    A slave was not considered a whole man only 3/5th's of a person. So by that warped reasoning they get around it.

  • 7 years ago

    Obviously they were hypocrites, as any of the abolitionists of the period could have pointed out. It just so happens that few, if any, were willing to do something about it.

  • Austin
    Lv 5
    7 years ago

    translates to:

    All white slaveowning aristocratic christian anti monarchy rich men are created equal.

    yes, they were hypocrits.

  • Anonymous
    7 years ago

    Um, yes, darling, I think people have noticed this before. Thanks for sharing, though.

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