Why didn't the Bible say anything about homosexuality until 1946?

>The original word was" arsenokoitai," and Greek scholars will admit that they have no idea what that word meant.

Actually we do. It refers to the "giver" and "receiver" in a man-man sex act. Note that the passage swings round to include prostitutes a few verses later. "arsenokoitai" refers to male prostitution which was ritualistic in the older hebrew pantheon. It was pretty much a cultural thing in he region. (We all know the Romans and the Greeks and the Turks were all "at it.") and even then, it was better to "give" than to receive." It certainly *does not* mean homosexuality. Despite claims to the contrary from people looking for an excuse to justify their own bigotry.

Monotheistic hebrews outlawed some of the "old practices" and changed some of "teh rulez"as a means to "distance themselves" from the "old beliefs" and because some things wre more/less appealing as time progressed. Bums on seats was the order of the day for "prophets" as it got the cash and sweet young daughters in. Much like pork chop eating xtians/Paul.

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>If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."

>If that is not a description of homosexuality, then please explain to me what it is referring to?

Penetration. Clearly.

However you *WANT* it to be homosexuality so you can justify your bigotry. As I mentioned above.

I will state this at the outset: Im not a greek scholar. however, I am a serious student of the scriptures, and have been studying the bible my entire life.

The bible has reported on cases of homosexuality, as well as spoken on the subject, numerous times throughout the scriptures. For instance: The account of sodom and gommorah (genesis 19:4-10), pauls words to the corinthians regarding various lifestyles that are no approved by god (1 corithians 6:9 and 10).

there is irrefutable evidence of the authenticity of these accounts, both in terms of the actual events, but also from a time of writting standpoint. So even, if "arsenokoitai" was never used, the accounts themselves indicate exacting what is being talked about

The word "homosexual" is a fairly new term in the English language. It is not now, nor has it ever been "in the Bible" because the Bible is not in ENGLISH. The Bible is in Hebrew and Greek (with a smattering of Aramaic). It is in some English TRANSLATIONS of The Bible, and that is fine.

However, Thayer's Greek Lexicon was released in the 1880's and it quotes the translation as 'arsenokoitēs" as "I.one who lies with a male as with a female, Sodomite".

Your statement that "Greek scholars will admit that they have no idea what that word meant" is patently false. Koine Greek has been a consistently studied language since it was a living language. It's meaning has been known all along.

The modern English word "Homosexual" MEANS "someone who has sex with someone of their own gender". They don't HAVE to LIKE it. So people doing this in prison are "homosexual", even if they'd rather be doing it with women. The term "homosexual" implies ACTION, not FEELING or attraction.

Leviticus 18:22

You shall not lie with a man as one lies with a woman it is an abomination.

Certainly God is not suggesting that the act of simply lying down on a bed or the ground is an abomination. Immoral sexual acts is what He is specifically speaking to. The word "homosexual" is not in the verse. God does address the actions however.

Yes, Shawn! The Bible is very clear on this matter... in the Old Testament, the half of the Bible that we pick and choose from because of the New Covenant.

(/sarcasm)

So lets see if I have this right...

Because the English word "homosexuality" had not yet been coined when the Bible was translated into English in 1611, that means the Greek "arsenokoitai" can not mean "homosexuality".

[Insert Twilight Zone theme]

The word arsenokoitai comes from the LXX Greek translation of the Old Testament. That is the translation that all New Testament quotes of the Old Testament come from It is found in Leviticus 20:13.

" If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."

If that is not a description of homosexuality, then please explain to me what it is referring to?

The word "arsenokoitai" refers to what we today call "homosexuality".

This video dismantles every Bible-based argument against homosexuality:

http://www.matthewvines.com/

If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination

So what if thia gay dude hasnt slept with a woman at all......

You know I could never understand you bible-thumpers and your hypocrisy toward sex. When behind closed doors your the biggest perverts of all. And no, the bible was probably referring to male rape (soldiers did rape men who lost a war to shame them) and even homosexuality was looked down upon in both ancient Greece and Rome, but sexual relations with slaves (even males) was allowed because they were property.

Learn your history bible thumpers or you'll make America even dumber with your willful ignorance

◄ Leviticus 18:22 ►

King James Bible

Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.

That's from Leviticus, one of the first 5 books of the Bible. That was well before 1946