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DLM
Lv 7
DLM asked in Science & MathematicsBiology · 7 years ago

How do we know that the 1-4% shared DNA between humans today and neanderthals is from inter-species procreation?

Update:

I've seen in numerous documentaries about human evolution that roughly 1-4% of DNA between Homo sapiens today and Homo neanderthalensis is from inter-species procreation. How did they rule out that these specific genes were not convergent evolution or shared from an earlier ancestor? That detail is never explained in any of these videos, and I'm sort of curious about it.

Update 2:

Semantics and insults aside, does anyone care to offer an explanation to the spirit of the actual question?

3 Answers

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  • 7 years ago
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    They ruled out convergent evolution because that's not how it works.

    They ruled out an earlier ancestor because its only some humans that have Neanderthal DNA, Africans don't have such DNA (other than those who have non-African ancestors), which is very good evidence that the interbreeding took place after modern humans started migrating from Africa (as Neanderthals did not live in Africa).

  • 7 years ago

    I know there is a small group of scientists that believe the DNA in question could have come from an ancient ancestor. The problem is that modern humans and Neanderthals split from a common ancestor probably around half a million years ago. To believe that such old DNA sequences could be found in both species after so much time is not really believable.

  • 7 years ago

    The term "inter-species" is a misnomer. If indeed neanderthals and homo sapiens were interbreeding and producing viable offspring, that means they were the same species. It's the same thing as saying black people and white people are different species. Clearly that isn't true.

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