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How do Trinitarian Christians reconcile the implicit Panentheism of the divinity of a material entity (Jesus) with original sin?
Note: I'm looking for --- SERIOUS --- answers, and snarky answers will not be given priority.
Explanation: Original sin encapsulates the idea that material in inherently "flawed" or "sinful" and only the immaterial is "pure" or "divine".
If Jesus was both a material being and divine there is a contradiction of theology since by the doctrine and ideology of original sin it follows that material is "impure" and therefore not "divine".
@ ADRIAN
He is equal to God though not just "sinless".
So you're saying it is a ONE time deal and that there can be times when flesh is divine and the implications of the doctrine of OS are suspended?
Are the exceptions to the "impurity of the material" confined to prophesied instances dictated by the Old Testament? Or, are there other times when this is allowed?
@ ADRIAN (PART 2)
The only problem is is if he Jesus is "eternal" and exists even after he ascended then he had to change form. Is the Panenthesim temporary or do the implications of God manifesting in the flesh result in continued Panentheism?
6 Answers
- ?Lv 76 years ago
Deep, man. Deep.
I hate to do this to you, but... They are going to say that Jesus was god and therefore immune to corruption. You wont get anywhere.
This is how I understand it. Jesus was a man, not G-d. This negates the 3 is 1 stuff, since there is only ONE G-d. Check this is Islam and Judaism. They may disagree on some things, but they agree on this.
The idea of Original Sin only pertains to humans. Nothing else is impure. Or, rather, in my view, only humans are impure. They are the only unnatural creatures G-d has made. Free will and evil, all that. But, this is something we choose, so we can be good. Jesus was "just" a man. Now, Islam sees him as a Prophet, much like the others (Moses, Abraham, Muhammad) and was therefore pure. So, I would go with the idea that Jesus was devote and pure, either by choose or because he was chosen. Either way, he was a step above the rest of us. There is no reason why he couldn't have been tempted, as we all are, but he was blessed in that he didn't give in, like most of us do.
I think, your idea of Original Sin, as you see it, falls into the heresy of the Cathars. It's been a while for me, but I think they felt that this world was evil (also in the Bible).
You have a good point about Jesus not being G-d.
- ColtLv 46 years ago
You have a very flawed understanding of original sin. What is meant by original sin is that human beings, due to the sin of our first parents, have inherited a propensity to be disobedient to God and make the wrong decision. Material is not corrupted and flawed. That's a Gnostic idea that has its origins in Greek philosophy and religion.
When Jesus became man, that was the first action of restoring humanity to not only our proper relationship with God, but also our original state. The completion of this act -- and the restoration of the body -- is seen in his glorious resurrection, where his humanity and divinity co-existed in one.
Source(s): I'm a Catholic Theology Major - GabrielLv 66 years ago
The flesh was not sinful, Jesus showed that
Adam and Eve were not created already in a sinful state
Even Satan and his demons were spirit beings
They were not created in a sinful state
Adam became sinner and passed it on
Jesus was the perfect sacrifice "The Lamb Of God"
and satisfied the Law covenant placed by his father
Sorry, I am not a trinitarian.
But, if God knew before hand that Satan and his demons
or Adam were going to sin before he created them.
The whole thing is a sham
So something will have to give
and it will not be God
Satan and his demons became sinners, Adam and Eve became sinners and passed it on
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- Anonymous6 years ago
Jesus never sinned
- MoiLv 76 years ago
Its like this>>>>>
Flesh when left to its own devices is sinful - its ordinary animated dirt
As long as the flesh submits to the guidance of God, there is no inherent sin.
Adam's flesh didnt - Jesus' flesh did