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Me asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 5 years ago

Is the converse of logarithmic rules valid?

log (m/n) = log m - log n

So is log m - log n = log (m/n) too?

Similarly,

log mn = log m + log n

So is log m + log n = log mn true too?

Pls explain.

6 Answers

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  • Iggy Rocko
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    Yes. That's called the symmetric property.

    Source(s): http://hotmath.com/hotmath_help/topics/reflexive-s...
  • ?
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    y = log mn.

    mn = 10^ y,

    let m= 10^a, n= 10^b,

    mn= 10^a*10^b= 10^(a+b)= 10^y

    Compare the two terms

    a+b = y, log m +log n =y = log mn,

    Proved.

  • cidyah
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    Yes. They are valid.

  • DWRead
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    " So is log m - log n = log (m/n) too?"

    Yes, it is the symmetric rule. If a=b, then b=a.

  • How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
  • Como
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    TRUE

    There is nothing to explain !

    If a = b then b = a

  • ?
    Lv 6
    5 years ago

    YES , IT HOLDS

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