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Lv 7
Is x=1 an inflection point of 1/(x-1) or does the fact that x=1 is not in the domain of f(x) stop it from being an inflection point.?
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- ?Lv 71 year agoFavorite Answer
For x=c to be an inflection point of f(x), x=c must be in the domain of f(x).
- 1 year ago
Find the 2nd derivative
f(x) = (x - 1)^(-1)
f'(x) = (-1) * (x - 1)^(-2)
f''(x) = 2 * (x - 1)^(-3)
Inflection points occur when f''(x) = 0. That never happens for f(x) = 1/(x - 1), so 1/(x - 1) has no inflection point.
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