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?
Lv 7
? asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 1 year ago

Is x=1 an inflection point of 1/(x-1) or does the fact that x=1 is not in the domain of f(x) stop it from being an inflection point.?

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 year ago
    Favorite Answer

    For x=c to be an inflection point of f(x), x=c must be in the domain of f(x).

  • Find the 2nd derivative

    f(x) = (x - 1)^(-1)

    f'(x) = (-1) * (x - 1)^(-2)

    f''(x) = 2 * (x - 1)^(-3)

    Inflection points occur when f''(x) = 0.  That never happens for f(x) = 1/(x - 1), so 1/(x - 1) has no inflection point.

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