14And the soldiers likewise demanded of him, saying, And what shall we do? And he said unto them, Do violence to no man, neither accuse any falsely; and be content with your wages.
Above is the quote- Why do all other versions take out the part about :Doing violence to NOman"?
Thanks!
skepsis2010-11-04T21:03:29Z
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The actual Greek word, "diaseisēte" (διασείσητε), literally means "shake violently". The implication, "shake-down", is also valid in the Greek. Soldiers who "shook" people were extorting money.
13 And he said unto them, Exact no more than that which is appointed you (we find here that John treated the publicans no different than he did the Pharisees, who claimed to be so religious; the message was the same to all). 14 And the soldiers likewise demanded of him, saying, And what shall we do? (Israel had no army, so these could very well have been Gentiles.) And he said unto them, Do violence to no man, neither accuse any falsely; and be content with your wages (these men, both publicans and soldiers, are not bidden by the inspired Prophet of the Highest to change their way of life, but only its manner).
The word here is diaseiō in the original Greek which literally translated means to shake thoroughly, to make to tremble, to terrify, to agitate, to extort from one by intimidation money or other property New King James translates it as intimidate, New International Version, Young's, English Standard Version and several translate it as extort which is closer to the original. There are probably historical reasons that KJV is a bit further from the original but some of it is also just the way word usage changes over the centuries.
Here's NIV: 14 Then some soldiers asked him, “And what should we do?” He replied, “Don’t extort money and don’t accuse people falsely—be content with your pay.”
Apparently, the KJV translators didn't get "Don't extort money" rendered correctly. It's a poetic translation, but not as accurate as what modern biblical scholarship can produce.