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King James (of KJV bible fame) was gay or bisexual?

so why is that so many KJV fans are so enamored with anti-gay rhetoric and Leviticus 20:13?

King James, by his act of having the bible translated, seems to prove that gays can be as Christian and as God-focussed as anyone else. I don't get it.

References:

http://www.libchrist.com/other/homosexual/kingjame...

http://www.infopt.demon.co.uk/jamesi.htm

11 Answers

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  • 2 decades ago
    Favorite Answer

    He was definitely bisexual but it wasn't widely known. I believe that he had an affair with the Duke of Buckingham, amongst others. It was sort of an open secret in court.

    You have to bear in mind that they panic about "gays" is fairly recent - it stems from the Victorian era - "gay" as a sexuality didn't really exist in the 17th century. There were "sodomites", but it was never really assumed that because people liked a bit of both then they were mutually exclusive.

    Sodomy quite often took place amongst the Upper Classes, it was only really when Middle Class morality started to overtake in the late 18th and early 19th century that it was seen as a problem.

  • 2 decades ago

    Well even if he was and the 2 websites you posted are true, He did not write the KJV Bible, He only had the Bible translated from Latin to French and then from French to English.

    He was married with 9 children and One site on King James I history said...

    "He's being falsely accused of atrocities such as homosexuality, being a closet papist (Catholic) and burning baptists! These fallacies are not going without rebuttal, however. Historians who've studied this great King for many years, are setting the record straight."

    So maybe what you have read is not true. But even if he was it makes no difference.

    http://www.jesus-is-lord.com/kingjame.htm

  • ?
    Lv 7
    2 decades ago

    You are correct that King James was at least a bi-sexual. He paraded his court favourites around and treated them better than he did his own wife...although considering some of the kings of England, this wasn't out of the ordinary. That he was able to sire children on Anne of Denmark often made the court wonder. They had three sons and four daughters. At the time, everyone was Christian. If you weren't you had the chance of finding yourself burned at the stake. Even if you were, it depended on where you were. But I digress.....The fact that James was King of England gave him a little more leeway. And most kings sponsored a Bible translation. It was just the thing to do. As for being "gay", James knew he was, everyone else knew he was, but he was the king and even though you might whisper about his buggery, it was treason to accuse him of it.

  • 2 decades ago

    It doesn't matter what type of man he was, but that the lord use him to translate his word in English so that whosoever will along with the lord people that was taken into captivity can get his word. When you understand how the lord operate by Reading his word, then you won't ask such a foolish and unlearned question because being gay is a abomination to the Most High God.

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  • 2 decades ago

    James the VI of Scotland and I of England was gay. He did not translate the Bible, that was done at his behest by a bunch of people working together. His reign was marked by great progress and achievement in science, art, literature, etc.

    Biblepounders do not accept gays. They ransack this Bible for any disapproving reference possible to rail against it [skipping over David and Jonathan]. They put their cart before the horse - they try to make it seem that their dislike of gays comes from Biblical disapproval, but actually, they just don't like gays and find excuses for that in this Bible.

  • Anonymous
    2 decades ago

    I can see, based on the hat you are wearing in your avatar, why you are pro-gay.

    All kidding aside, can you change that? Please?

    I think you have King James confused with the first five books of the Bible. These were written many, many, many years before King James was alive.

  • 2 decades ago

    He wasn't - he was happily married with 9 children! It's a homosexual ploy to make as many famous people gay so they can say - look it's acceptable and has been for centuries!

  • Anonymous
    2 decades ago

    King James is "defender of the faith"

    http://www.godshew.org/Faiths.htm

    and "c": catholic, universal, globe-all

    http://www.godshew.org/EpistleDedicatory.htm

    The law is not of faith: Galatians 3:12

    Begin your faith->hope->charity

    with "grace" that is more grace us.

    The KJV is notably "the seventh" Bible,

    http://www.godshew.org/Sevens5.htm

    and it is simply called the Holy Bible,

    http://www.godshew.org/biblicalemblems.htm

    as if a "good" one (six prior) made "better",

    purposed to make God's holy truth more kNOWn.

    http://www.godshew.org/BibleTranslators.htm

    The God of all grace make you perfect

    after ye suffer awhile in yer law law.

    And "you all" in the end

    notably begins with "you".

    The "grace" of our Lord JC with you all. Amen.

    Source(s): Holy Bible is not Law Law in the end is already written.
  • 2 decades ago

    James I of England was, in fact, gay. Marriage and children do not prevent a homosexual inclination nor homosexual behavior.

    Source(s): Wikipedia.
  • 2 decades ago

    You keep thinking that there is no Heaven or Hell and see what happens to you.

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